Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing a thyroid storm. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Hypothermia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Lethargy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a thyroid storm, which is a severe complication of hyperthyroidism, hypertension is an expected finding. Other common manifestations include tachycardia, hyperthermia, and agitation. Hypothermia (choice A) is not expected in a thyroid storm as the body temperature is usually elevated due to increased metabolic rate. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typical in a thyroid storm; instead, tachycardia is more common. Lethargy (choice D) is not a typical finding in a thyroid storm, as clients are usually agitated due to excess thyroid hormone levels.

2. A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?

• A. 18.5
• B. 24.9
• C. 25
• D. 32

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.

3. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being educated about their diet by a nurse. Which of the following food selections indicates that the client understands the teaching?

• A. A sandwich and a milkshake
• B. Rice with black beans
• C. Cottage cheese and tuna on lettuce
• D. A three-egg omelet with low-sodium ham

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rice with black beans. Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit protein intake to prevent the buildup of ammonia. Plant-based proteins are preferred over animal-based proteins in this condition. Rice with black beans provides a good balance of nutrients and is a suitable choice for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they contain animal-based proteins, which should be limited in clients with hepatic encephalopathy.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

5. A nurse on an acute med-surgical unit is performing assessments on a group of clients. Which is the highest priority?

• A. Client with surgical hypoparathyroidism and positive Trousseau's sign
• B. Client with Clostridium difficile and acute diarrhea
• C. Client with acute kidney injury and low urine specific gravity
• D. Client with oral cancer and reports a sore on his gums

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A positive Trousseau's sign indicates hypocalcemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications like tetany or laryngospasm, making it the highest priority. Choices B, C, and D, while important, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential complications of severe hypocalcemia seen in a client with surgical hypoparathyroidism and a positive Trousseau's sign.

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