Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who reports burning around the peripheral IV site. Which finding should the nurse identify as a manifestation of infiltration?

• A. Redness at the site
• B. Warmth around the site
• C. Edema
• D. Pain at the site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Edema at the IV site indicates that IV solution has leaked into the extravascular tissue, which is a sign of infiltration. Redness, warmth, and pain at the site are more indicative of phlebitis, not infiltration. Phlebitis is characterized by redness, warmth, and pain along the vein where the IV is placed, while infiltration involves the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissue.

3. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.

4. A client who signed an informed consent form for surgery but has since expressed doubts about the need for surgery should discuss concerns with the surgeon to obtain informed answers. Which statement should the nurse make?

• A. It's normal to feel unsure; the surgery will be beneficial
• B. You can cancel surgery any time without any consequences
• C. I'll inform the surgeon to answer your questions before surgery
• D. We can reschedule surgery for another day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the nurse should facilitate communication between the client and the surgeon to address any doubts and provide necessary information. Choice A may invalidate the client's concerns and might not address the root of the issue. Choice B oversimplifies the situation and might not consider the potential consequences of canceling surgery. Choice D, while offering an alternative, does not address the client's doubts about the surgery.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
• B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
• C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
• D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.

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