Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. Client placed in restraints for aggressive behavior
• B. A new client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
• C. Client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for increased anxiety
• D. Client who will be receiving his first ECT treatment today

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has tuberculosis (TB) and is prescribed rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a reddish-orange color.
• B. You should expect to take this medication for at least 6 months.
• C. You should avoid eating dairy products while on this medication.
• D. This medication can cause sensitivity to sunlight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin can cause harmless red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, sweat, and tears. Clients should be informed about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because the duration of rifampin therapy for TB is typically longer than 6 months. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while on rifampin. Choice D is incorrect as rifampin does not cause sensitivity to sunlight.

3. While in the cafeteria, a nurse overhears two APs discussing a hospitalized patient. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Report the incident to the supervisor.
• B. Join the conversation to intervene.
• C. Quietly tell the APs that this is not appropriate.
• D. Ignore the conversation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to choose option C: 'Quietly tell the APs that this is not appropriate.' The nurse should immediately and discreetly address the situation, reminding the APs that discussing patient information in public areas violates confidentiality. Reporting the incident to the supervisor (option A) may be necessary if the behavior continues. Joining the conversation to intervene (option B) may escalate the situation and compromise patient confidentiality. Ignoring the conversation (option D) does not address the violation or prevent it from recurring.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is prioritizing care for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A 6-year-old with a dislocated shoulder
• B. A 26-year-old with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
• C. A 76-year-old with confusion, fever, and foul-smelling urine
• D. A 50-year-old with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with slurred speech, disorientation, and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Identifying and managing a stroke promptly can reduce the risk of long-term disability or complications. The other options, although important, do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. A dislocated shoulder, severe joint pain in sickle cell disease, confusion with fever and foul-smelling urine, while concerning, can be addressed after attending to the client with potential stroke symptoms.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions from the provider should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Call the provider if the client’s respiratory rate is less than 18/min
• B. Administer 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
• C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
• D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for clients with congestive heart failure to help reduce blood pressure and fluid overload. Option A is incorrect as in congestive heart failure, a lower respiratory rate could be a sign of worsening condition and needs immediate attention rather than waiting to call the provider. Option B is incorrect as administering a large IV bolus of sodium chloride could exacerbate fluid overload in a client with heart failure. Option D is incorrect as a pulse rate lower than 80/min may not necessarily indicate a problem in a client with congestive heart failure.

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