a nurse in a mental health facility receives a change of shift report on four clients which of the following clients should the nurse assess first
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.

2. A nurse is preparing a client for transfer to another unit. Which finding should the nurse include in the transfer report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When preparing a client for transfer to another unit, the nurse should include all the findings mentioned in the choices in the transfer report. It is crucial to document the client's response to pain medication as it helps the receiving unit manage the client's pain effectively. Reviewing the ongoing discharge plan ensures that the client's care continues seamlessly after the transfer. Noting recent physical changes is vital for the receiving unit to monitor the client's condition accurately. Therefore, all of the above findings are essential for ensuring continuity of care and providing comprehensive information to the receiving unit.

3. A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record and notes that the client is taking tamoxifen. The nurse should identify that tamoxifen is used to treat which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen medication primarily used to treat hormone receptor-positive breast cancer. It works by blocking estrogen receptors in breast tissue, slowing the growth of tumors that require estrogen to grow. Choice A, Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, is incorrect because tamoxifen is not indicated for its treatment. Choice B, Endometriosis, is incorrect as tamoxifen is not used for this condition. Choice D, Polycystic ovary syndrome, is also incorrect since tamoxifen is not a treatment for this syndrome.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

5. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

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