Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working at the clinic is teaching a group of clients who are pregnant on the use of nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following is an appropriate description of the use of hypnosis during labor?

• A. Hypnosis focuses on biofeedback as a relaxation technique
• B. Hypnosis promotes increased control of pain perception during contractions
• C. Hypnosis uses therapeutic touch to reduce anxiety during labor
• D. Hypnosis provides instruction to minimize pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hypnosis during labor helps the client gain increased control over her perception of pain, allowing for better pain management during contractions. Choice A is incorrect because hypnosis and biofeedback are distinct techniques. Choice C is incorrect as therapeutic touch and hypnosis are different modalities. Choice D is incorrect as hypnosis does not simply provide instruction to minimize pain, but rather helps the individual control their perception of pain.

2. A nurse is providing education to a client about a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for increased heart rate
• B. Take the medication at the same time every day
• C. It should be stopped abruptly
• D. Avoid potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take the medication at the same time every day.' Clients should take digoxin at the same time each day to maintain consistent therapeutic levels, enhancing the drug's effectiveness and minimizing fluctuations in blood concentration. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin, as a medication, may actually help in controlling the heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as digoxin should never be stopped abruptly due to the risk of rebound effects and worsening of the condition. Choice D is unrelated to digoxin therapy, as it is more relevant to medications like potassium-sparing diuretics.

3. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

5. A client with a history of renal failure is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Fluid intake
• B. Electrolyte levels
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Both B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal failure are at risk for electrolyte imbalances and hypertension. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial because renal failure can lead to imbalances in sodium, potassium, and other electrolytes. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as hypertension is a common complication of renal failure. Therefore, both electrolyte levels and blood pressure should be closely monitored to detect and manage any abnormalities. Fluid intake, while important, is not specific to renal failure monitoring and is not the priority in this case.

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