a nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via iv bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation which of the following findings is a contraindication
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.

2. A patient with chronic kidney disease reports feeling light-headed after taking their medication. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are prone to orthostatic hypotension, which can cause dizziness. To prevent this, the nurse should instruct the patient to stand up slowly. Options A, B, and D do not directly address the issue of orthostatic hypotension and dizziness in this scenario.

3. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

5. A client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is admitted to labor and delivery. What question should the nurse ask?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask the client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is 'Do you have any active lesions?' This is crucial because active herpes lesions may necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal infection. Choice B, 'Have your membranes ruptured?' is related to assessing for the rupture of membranes, not specific to the client's herpes infection. Choice C, 'How far apart are your contractions?' is related to monitoring labor progress. Choice D, 'Are you positive for beta strep?' is related to group B streptococcus screening, which is important but not the priority in this scenario.

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