ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A
1. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.
2. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
- B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
- C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
- D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.
3. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Use a designated stethoscope for the toddler
- B. Wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the toddler
- C. Place the toddler in a negative pressure room
- D. Remove the disposable gown before leaving the toddler's room
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.
4. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which action is the nurse's priority?
- A. Restrain the client
- B. Place the client on their side with their head forward
- C. Perform a neurological assessment
- D. Monitor the client's vitals every 2 minutes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of fluids or secretions. Restraint should never be used during a seizure as it can cause harm to the client. Performing a neurological assessment is important but not the immediate priority during an active seizure. While monitoring vitals is essential, ensuring the client's airway is clear takes precedence.
5. A nurse is supervising an LPN who is providing care to a patient who is postoperative. Which of the following statements by the patient requires the nurse to follow up with the LPN?
- A. “I am experiencing some pain, but it’s tolerable.”
- B. “The nurse checked my vital signs earlier.”
- C. “I have not received any of my medications today.”
- D. “I am scheduled for therapy later today.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: If the patient states they have not received any medications, it requires immediate follow-up to prevent missed doses and complications. The other options do not pose an immediate risk to the patient. Option A indicates pain but is tolerable, which is a common postoperative experience. Option B states that vital signs were checked, indicating ongoing monitoring. Option D mentions therapy, which is a scheduled activity and not an urgent concern regarding medication administration.
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