Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. History of diuretic use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin and NPH insulin. What is the proper sequence of events the nurse should follow?

• A. Inspect the vials for contamination.
• B. Withdraw regular insulin first, then NPH.
• C. Inject air into the NPH insulin vial first.
• D. Roll the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence of events for administering regular insulin and NPH insulin begins with inspecting the vials for contamination to ensure patient safety. Rolling the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should follow the inspection step. Afterward, the nurse should inject air into the regular insulin vial and then withdraw the regular insulin first. Option A is the correct answer as it outlines the initial crucial step in the administration process. Option B is incorrect as it provides the incorrect order of withdrawing the insulins. Option C is incorrect as injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should come after inspecting the vials. Option D is incorrect as rolling the NPH insulin vial should be done after inspecting the vials and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• B. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, as evidenced by contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. Discontinuing the oxytocin is crucial to prevent fetal distress and uterine rupture. Increasing the IV fluid rate would not address the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin. Applying an internal fetal monitor is not the priority at this moment; first, the oxytocin infusion needs to be stopped to manage the uterine hyperstimulation effectively.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. How far apart are your contractions?
• C. Do you have any active lesions?
• D. Are you positive for beta strep?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.

5. A menopausal client is having difficulty getting to sleep and asks what actions she should incorporate into her daily routine to promote sleep. The nurse would encourage which of the following measures to promote sleep?

• A. Consume a warm drink at bedtime
• B. Take an evening walk before bedtime
• C. Take an afternoon nap
• D. Limit alcohol and nicotine prior to bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Limit alcohol and nicotine prior to bedtime. Alcohol and nicotine are stimulants that can disrupt sleep patterns, so avoiding them before bedtime can promote better sleep. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Consuming a warm drink at bedtime may lead to frequent urination, disrupting sleep; taking an evening walk before bedtime may increase alertness rather than inducing sleep; and taking an afternoon nap can make it harder to fall asleep at night.

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