a nurse is teaching a client who has mild persistent asthma about montelukast which statement by the client indicates understanding
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A client with mild persistent asthma is being taught about montelukast by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'This medication will decrease swelling and mucus production.' Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that works by reducing swelling and mucus production in the airways, helping to manage asthma symptoms in the long term. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because montelukast is not used for immediate relief during asthma attacks, pre-exercise prophylaxis, or short-term treatment; instead, it is taken regularly for asthma control.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with encephalopathy secondary to liver failure. The client has been prescribed a high-calorie, low-protein diet. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chicken breast provides a low-fat protein source, and mashed potatoes and spinach provide high-calorie nutrients suitable for managing liver failure. Option A (Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes) is high in protein, which is not suitable for a low-protein diet. Option B (Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding) contains high protein and may not be appropriate for the client. Option C (Steak, French fries, corn) is high in protein and fat, which are not recommended for this client's dietary requirements.

3. A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in preterm labor and is receiving magnesium sulfate via IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine output of 20 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity because decreased urine output can lead to accumulation of magnesium. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, high systolic blood pressure, and normal BUN levels do not specifically point towards magnesium toxicity.

5. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

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