ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is assessing four clients for fluid balance. Which of the following clients is exhibiting manifestations of dehydration?
- A. A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010.
- B. A client who has a weight gain of 2.2 kg (2 lb) in 24 hr.
- C. A client who has a hematocrit of 45%.
- D. A client who has a temperature of 39°C (102°F).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an elevated temperature is a common manifestation of dehydration. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 1.010 is within normal range, weight gain suggests fluid overload, and a hematocrit of 45% is also within normal limits and not specifically related to dehydration.
2. To reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), how should the parents position the newborn?
- A. Prone position
- B. Supine position
- C. Side-lying position
- D. Semi-Fowler's position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Supine position. Placing the newborn on their back (supine position) is the safest sleeping position to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position helps prevent airway obstruction, which can occur when infants are placed on their stomach (prone position), side (side-lying position), or in a semi-upright position (semi-Fowler's position). The prone position (choice A) is associated with an increased risk of SIDS, making it an unsafe choice. Side-lying position (choice C) and semi-Fowler's position (choice D) also pose risks of airway compromise and are not recommended for sleep positioning to prevent SIDS. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect in this context.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer an antihistamine prior to transfusion.
- B. Check the client’s vital signs.
- C. Verify the client’s identification with another nurse.
- D. Prime the IV tubing with normal saline.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client is to verify the client’s identification with another nurse. This is crucial to ensure that the correct blood product is administered to the correct client, minimizing the risk of a transfusion reaction. Administering an antihistamine prior to transfusion (Choice A) is not the first priority and is not a standard practice. While checking the client’s vital signs (Choice B) is important, verifying the client’s identification takes precedence to prevent a critical error. Priming the IV tubing with normal saline (Choice D) is a necessary step in the process but should occur after verifying the client's identity.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client has an intrauterine pressure catheter and an internal fetal scalp electrode for monitoring. Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should discontinue the infusion?
- A. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes
- B. Contraction duration of 100 seconds
- C. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability
- D. Fetal heart rate of 118/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds indicates potential uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and decreased uterine perfusion. Prolonged contractions may reduce oxygen supply to the fetus, putting it at risk. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. The other options do not raise immediate concerns that would necessitate discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes is within a normal range. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability and a rate of 118/min are both reassuring signs of fetal well-being.
5. What is the name of a legal document that instructs health care providers and family members about what life-sustaining treatment an individual wants if they are unable to make decisions?
- A. Do Not Resuscitate
- B. Informed consent
- C. Living will
- D. Durable power of attorney for health care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Living will.' A living will is a legal document that outlines an individual's preferences for life-sustaining medical treatment if they become unable to make decisions. Choice A, 'Do Not Resuscitate,' specifically refers to a directive that instructs healthcare providers not to perform CPR. Choice B, 'Informed consent,' pertains to a patient's right to be informed about and consent to medical treatment. Choice D, 'Durable power of attorney for health care,' involves appointing someone to make healthcare decisions on behalf of an individual when they are unable to do so.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access