Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing four clients for fluid balance. Which of the following clients is exhibiting manifestations of dehydration?

• A. A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010.
• B. A client who has a weight gain of 2.2 kg (2 lb) in 24 hr.
• C. A client who has a hematocrit of 45%.
• D. A client who has a temperature of 39°C (102°F).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an elevated temperature is a common manifestation of dehydration. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 1.010 is within normal range, weight gain suggests fluid overload, and a hematocrit of 45% is also within normal limits and not specifically related to dehydration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis with a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Reduces blood pressure
• B. Inhibits clotting of fistula
• C. Promotes RBC production
• D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease who may have anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: epoetin alfa does not directly reduce blood pressure, inhibit clotting of the fistula, or stimulate growth of neutrophils.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer TPN with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the TPN solution separately from 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. Check for an allergy to eggs
• C. Discuss the TPN solution with the client
• D. Monitor for hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer TPN with fat supplements is to check for an allergy to eggs. The lipid emulsion in TPN often contains egg phospholipids, so screening for egg allergies is crucial to prevent any adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because TPN should not be piggybacked with 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid any interactions or dilution of the TPN solution. Option C is incorrect as discussing the TPN solution with the client is not the priority when preparing to administer it. Option D is incorrect as monitoring for hypoglycemia, although important in TPN administration, is not specifically related to the addition of fat supplements.

5. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?

• A. Swelling in the limb
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Improved mobility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swelling in the limb. Swelling, particularly in one limb, is a common sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and should be assessed. This swelling is often accompanied by pain, redness, and warmth in the affected area. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased heart rate, increased appetite, and improved mobility are not typically associated with DVT. The main focus in assessing for DVT is recognizing the signs and symptoms related to venous thrombosis.

Similar Questions