Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of sildenafil. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It should not be taken with nitrates
• B. Monitor for headaches
• C. It is a prescription medication
• D. It may have side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for headaches when taking sildenafil. This medication can cause headaches and other side effects, so it is crucial to inform clients about these potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as sildenafil is a prescription medication, not an over-the-counter one. Choice D is incorrect because sildenafil, like any medication, can have side effects that should be discussed with the client.

2. A nurse is providing teaching for a child who is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with milk
• B. Take with a glass of orange juice
• C. Take at bedtime
• D. Take with meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate should be taken with orange juice (vitamin C) to enhance the absorption of iron. Taking it with milk (choice A) is not recommended as calcium can interfere with iron absorption. Taking it at bedtime (choice C) or with meals (choice D) may lead to decreased absorption due to interactions with other food or medications.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
• B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
• C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
• D. Withhold heparin IV infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Withholding heparin IV infusion is the priority if there is a risk of complications such as bleeding, which must be evaluated before continuing treatment.

4. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
• B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
• C. No action is needed at this time.
• D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

5. A nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. BUN 35 mg/dL
• B. Hgb 15 g/dL
• C. Bilirubin 0.6 mg/dL
• D. Hct 37%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A BUN of 35 mg/dL indicates potential kidney impairment, which is a concern in preeclampsia due to compromised renal function. This finding warrants further evaluation by the provider. High BUN levels may suggest reduced kidney function, a common complication associated with preeclampsia. Hgb, Bilirubin, and Hct levels are within normal ranges and are not directly indicative of kidney impairment or preeclampsia in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated BUN level to the healthcare provider for prompt management and monitoring.

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