Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a flu vaccine. Which of the following should the healthcare professional verify?

• A. Client's age
• B. Client's allergy to eggs
• C. Client's vaccination history
• D. Client's weight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare professional should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the flu vaccine. Verifying the client's age (choice A) is important for other vaccines but not specifically for the flu vaccine. While allergy to eggs (choice B) is relevant as the flu vaccine is traditionally produced in eggs, it is not the top priority for verification. The client's weight (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of the flu vaccine.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased level of consciousness
• B. Inability to identify common objects
• C. Poor problem-solving ability
• D. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with schizophrenia, poor problem-solving ability is a common assessment finding due to impaired cognitive function associated with the disorder. This impairment can manifest as difficulties in decision-making and problem-solving. Choice A, decreased level of consciousness, is not a typical finding in schizophrenia. Choice B, inability to identify common objects, is more indicative of conditions like dementia rather than schizophrenia. Choice D, preoccupation with somatic disturbances, is more characteristic of somatic symptom disorder rather than schizophrenia.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?

• A. 19 gtt/min
• B. 20 gtt/min
• C. 21 gtt/min
• D. 22 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.

4. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Fever
• C. Improved appetite
• D. Stable weight

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. The correct answer is 'Fever.' Fever is a common sign of infection and indicates an immune response to an invading pathogen. Increased energy (Choice A) is not typically associated with infection, as the body often feels fatigued when fighting an infection. Improved appetite (Choice C) and stable weight (Choice D) are not specific signs of infection and may not necessarily indicate the presence of an infectious process. Therefore, the healthcare professional should focus on monitoring for fever as a key indicator of infection.

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