Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted for observation and has full range of motion. Which is the best manner to encourage the client to void?

• A. Urinal
• B. Bedpan
• C. Bedside Commode
• D. Client Bathroom

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Client Bathroom. Encouraging the client to use the bathroom is the best way to promote independence and privacy, maintaining normal function. In this case, since the client has full range of motion, using the client bathroom would be the most appropriate choice. Options A, B, and C (Urinal, Bedpan, Bedside Commode) are not the best choices as they may restrict the client's independence and privacy, which can impact their psychological well-being and normal voiding function.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

3. A nurse working in a mobile health clinic is assessing a migrant farm worker. What finding should the nurse identify as a priority?

• A. Report of fatigue and fever
• B. Report of muscle twitching and skin rash
• C. Report of blurred vision
• D. Report of nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle twitching and a skin rash may indicate exposure to pesticides, which requires immediate intervention due to potential toxicity. Fatigue and fever (Choice A) are non-specific symptoms that may indicate various conditions but do not directly indicate pesticide exposure. Blurred vision (Choice C) and nasal congestion (Choice D) are also non-specific symptoms and are less likely to be related to pesticide exposure compared to muscle twitching and a skin rash.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Pain radiating to the left arm
• B. Pain relieved by rest
• C. Pain worsened with breathing
• D. Pain relieved by antacids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain radiating to the left arm. This is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction and indicates possible heart involvement. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Pain relieved by rest, pain worsened with breathing, and pain relieved by antacids are not typical symptoms of myocardial infarction. These findings do not raise the same level of concern as pain radiating to the left arm and are less indicative of cardiac involvement.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

• A. Magnesium sulfate
• B. Oxytocin
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Nifedipine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

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