Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Weight gain
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Increased thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a classic sign of hypokalemia. Potassium plays a crucial role in muscle function, and low potassium levels can lead to muscle weakness. Weight gain, elevated blood pressure, and increased thirst are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Weight gain can be seen in conditions like fluid retention, elevated blood pressure can result from various causes, and increased thirst may be a symptom of conditions like diabetes.

2. A client is being treated for eclampsia. What is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Assess for hyperreflexia
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Monitor blood pressure every 15 minutes
• D. Prepare for delivery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Assess for hyperreflexia.' Eclampsia is a severe complication of pregnancy that involves seizures. Hyperreflexia, an overactive or overresponsive reflex, is often an early sign of impending eclampsia. By assessing for hyperreflexia, nurses can identify this warning sign and take preventive measures to manage the condition before seizures occur. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important but assessing for hyperreflexia takes precedence as it can lead to immediate life-threatening complications. While preparing for delivery (Choice D) may ultimately be necessary, the immediate priority is to assess for hyperreflexia to prevent seizures.

3. A nurse is preparing to assist a provider with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into a client’s subclavian vein. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client in a high-Fowler’s position
• B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
• C. Place a rolled towel under the client’s neck
• D. Assist the client into a side-lying position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when assisting with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into the subclavian vein is to place the client in Trendelenburg position. This position helps distend the veins and reduces the risk of air embolism during the insertion procedure. Option A, positioning the client in a high-Fowler’s position, would not be appropriate as it does not facilitate venous distention. Option C, placing a rolled towel under the client’s neck, is not directly related to the procedure and does not serve a specific purpose in this context. Option D, assisting the client into a side-lying position, is also not the correct choice as Trendelenburg position is preferred for this procedure to aid in vein distention.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

• A. Sunken anterior fontanel
• B. Tenting skin turgor
• C. Flat anterior fontanel
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

5. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
• B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
• C. No action is needed at this time.
• D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

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