a nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

3. A client at risk for coronary artery disease seeks advice from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease is to exercise for at least 150 minutes per week. Regular exercise is crucial in maintaining cardiovascular health and reducing the chances of developing heart disease. Increasing intake of saturated fats (Choice A) is counterproductive as it can raise cholesterol levels and contribute to arterial plaque formation. Taking iron supplements daily (Choice C) is not directly related to reducing the risk of coronary artery disease. Limiting fruits and vegetables in the diet (Choice D) is also not advisable, as they are essential components of a heart-healthy diet due to their high fiber and nutrient content.

4. A client has a new prescription for oxcarbazepine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum sodium levels. Oxcarbazepine can lead to hyponatremia, making it crucial to monitor serum sodium levels. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Blood glucose (choice C) monitoring is more relevant in medications affecting blood sugar levels. Heart rate (choice D) is not directly impacted by oxcarbazepine.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following foods indicates understanding of dietary teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Plant-based proteins such as beans are recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia production from animal proteins. Cottage cheese (choice A), tuna salad (choice B), and a three-egg omelet (choice D) are high in animal proteins, which can contribute to increased ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, making them less suitable dietary choices for these clients.

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