ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Fluid overload
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.
2. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. Client placed in restraints for aggressive behavior
- B. A new client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
- C. Client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for increased anxiety
- D. Client who will be receiving his first ECT treatment today
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.
3. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
- B. I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my finger.
- C. I will not apply mineral oil on the diaphragm.
- D. I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client with a surgical wound. Which action should the nurse take to prevent contamination during the dressing change?
- A. Proceed with the dressing change
- B. Restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field
- C. Continue without concern for minor splashes
- D. Delegate the task to another nurse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to prevent contamination during a sterile dressing change is to restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field. Any contamination of the sterile field compromises the aseptic technique and increases the risk of infection for the client. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain the sterility of the field throughout the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because proceeding with the dressing change, continuing without concern for minor splashes, or delegating the task to another nurse would all compromise the sterility of the procedure and increase the risk of infection for the client.
5. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Assist the client to a supine position
- C. Perform a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours
- D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice B) is not directly related to managing bacterial meningitis. Performing a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours (Choice C) may be important to assess the client's neurological status but is not the priority intervention in preventing the spread of infection. Recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family (Choice D) is not a standard practice in the care of a patient with bacterial meningitis.
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