Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Fluid overload
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.

2. A nurse is conducting an infertility assessment for a newly admitted client. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as affecting the client's fertility?

• A. Premature ovarian failure
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Dysmenorrhea
• D. Recurrent urinary tract infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Premature ovarian failure should be identified as affecting the client's fertility. It leads to reduced or absent ovarian function, resulting in decreased estrogen production and irregular menstrual cycles, which can impact fertility. Renal calculi, dysmenorrhea, and recurrent urinary tract infections do not directly affect fertility and are not typically associated with infertility assessments. Renal calculi are kidney stones that do not directly relate to reproductive health. Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation but does not necessarily indicate infertility. Recurrent urinary tract infections primarily affect the urinary system and do not directly impact fertility.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?

• A. Anorexia and weakness
• B. Hyperactivity and hunger
• C. Tachycardia and increased urination
• D. Polyphagia and polydipsia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Digitalis toxicity is a serious complication of digoxin therapy, particularly in older adults. Early symptoms include anorexia, nausea, and generalized weakness. Anorexia and weakness are common indicators of digitalis toxicity. Hyperactivity, hunger, tachycardia, increased urination, polyphagia, and polydipsia are not typical signs of digitalis toxicity. Monitoring for anorexia and weakness can help detect toxicity early and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias.

4. A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

• A. Client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and needs guidance with incentive spirometry
• B. Client who has awoken following a bronchoscopy and requests a drink
• C. Client who had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago and reports chest discomfort
• D. Client who had a cerebrovascular accident 2 days ago and needs help toileting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client who had a cerebrovascular accident 2 days ago and needs help toileting is stable and the task is appropriate for delegation to an assistive personnel (AP). Choices A, B, and C involve clients with more complex care needs that require the expertise of a nurse. Choice A involves providing guidance with incentive spirometry, which requires specialized knowledge and assessment skills. Choice B involves a client who has just undergone a bronchoscopy, so close monitoring is essential to assess for any complications. Choice C involves a client who had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago and is reporting chest discomfort, which could indicate a potential cardiac issue requiring immediate nursing assessment and intervention.

5. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

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