ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client at risk for coronary artery disease seeks advice from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?
- A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
- B. Exercise for 150 minutes per week.
- C. Take iron supplements daily.
- D. Limit fruits and vegetables in your diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease is to exercise for at least 150 minutes per week. Regular exercise is crucial in maintaining cardiovascular health and reducing the chances of developing heart disease. Increasing intake of saturated fats (Choice A) is counterproductive as it can raise cholesterol levels and contribute to arterial plaque formation. Taking iron supplements daily (Choice C) is not directly related to reducing the risk of coronary artery disease. Limiting fruits and vegetables in the diet (Choice D) is also not advisable, as they are essential components of a heart-healthy diet due to their high fiber and nutrient content.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydroxychloroquine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Eye exams
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Complete blood count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye exams. Hydroxychloroquine can cause retinal damage, making it essential for the nurse to monitor the client's eyes regularly for any changes. Monitoring liver function tests (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), or complete blood count (choice D) are not directly associated with the potential side effects of hydroxychloroquine.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Serum potassium levels
- B. Liver function
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving corticosteroids. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood glucose levels
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Serum potassium levels
- D. Both A and B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is receiving corticosteroids, the nurse should monitor both blood glucose levels and blood pressure. Corticosteroids can elevate blood glucose levels, leading to hyperglycemia, and may cause hypertension. Monitoring these parameters is essential to detect and address any potential adverse effects promptly. While monitoring serum potassium levels is important in some situations, it is not a primary concern when caring for a client receiving corticosteroids. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate options for monitoring in this scenario, making option D the correct answer.
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