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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client at risk for coronary artery disease seeks advice from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?
- A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
- B. Exercise for 150 minutes per week.
- C. Take iron supplements daily.
- D. Limit fruits and vegetables in your diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease is to exercise for at least 150 minutes per week. Regular exercise is crucial in maintaining cardiovascular health and reducing the chances of developing heart disease. Increasing intake of saturated fats (Choice A) is counterproductive as it can raise cholesterol levels and contribute to arterial plaque formation. Taking iron supplements daily (Choice C) is not directly related to reducing the risk of coronary artery disease. Limiting fruits and vegetables in the diet (Choice D) is also not advisable, as they are essential components of a heart-healthy diet due to their high fiber and nutrient content.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?
- A. Allergy history
- B. Vital signs
- C. Renal function
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.
3. A nurse is assessing a newborn whose mother had gestational diabetes. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?
- A. Hypertonia
- B. Jitteriness
- C. Acrocyanosis
- D. Generalized petechiae
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Jitteriness is a common sign of hypoglycemia in newborns. Other signs may include irritability, poor feeding, and lethargy. Choice A, Hypertonia, is not typically associated with hypoglycemia but rather with conditions like hypocalcemia. Acrocyanosis (Choice C) is a benign condition characterized by peripheral cyanosis and is not directly linked to hypoglycemia. Generalized petechiae (Choice D) are tiny red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding and are not specific to hypoglycemia.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Increased thirst
- B. Fatigue
- C. Weight gain
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fatigue. Fatigue, along with symptoms like shakiness and irritability, are common signs of hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (Choice A) is more indicative of hyperglycemia. Weight gain (Choice C) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common sign of hypoglycemia.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Liver function
- C. Serum potassium levels
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when initiating this medication to assess its effectiveness and potential side effects related to blood pressure regulation. Liver function monitoring is not typically required with lisinopril. While lisinopril can affect potassium levels, it is not the primary parameter to monitor when starting this medication. Heart rate monitoring is not a routine requirement when initiating lisinopril therapy.
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