ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client at risk for coronary artery disease seeks advice from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?
- A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
- B. Exercise for 150 minutes per week.
- C. Take iron supplements daily.
- D. Limit fruits and vegetables in your diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease is to exercise for at least 150 minutes per week. Regular exercise is crucial in maintaining cardiovascular health and reducing the chances of developing heart disease. Increasing intake of saturated fats (Choice A) is counterproductive as it can raise cholesterol levels and contribute to arterial plaque formation. Taking iron supplements daily (Choice C) is not directly related to reducing the risk of coronary artery disease. Limiting fruits and vegetables in the diet (Choice D) is also not advisable, as they are essential components of a heart-healthy diet due to their high fiber and nutrient content.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Digoxin
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Vitamin B6
- D. Propranolol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). Vitamin B6 is often used to treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum. It is considered safe for use in pregnant clients. Digoxin (Choice A) is a medication used for heart conditions, not for hyperemesis gravidarum. Calcium gluconate (Choice B) is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. Propranolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and anxiety, not for hyperemesis gravidarum.
3. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?
- A. Skin turgor displays tenting
- B. Flat anterior fontanel
- C. Cool, mottled skin
- D. Hyperpnea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.
4. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of allergic reaction. Which of the following should the nurse look for?
- A. Fever
- B. Rash
- C. Fatigue
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct! When assessing a client for signs of an allergic reaction, a nurse should look for a rash. A rash is a common manifestation of an allergic response, such as contact dermatitis or hives. It is important to recognize and assess rashes promptly as they can indicate an allergic reaction.\nOption A, fever, is not typically a primary sign of an allergic reaction but may occur in severe cases. Option C, fatigue, is a general symptom and not specific to allergic reactions. Option D, increased appetite, is not a common sign of an allergic reaction and is more likely related to other conditions or factors.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take sucralfate with an antacid.
- B. Take sucralfate 1 hour before meals.
- C. Take sucralfate with food.
- D. Take sucralfate at bedtime only.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to form a protective barrier over the ulcer, enhancing healing. Choice A is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with an antacid. Choice C is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken at bedtime only; it is best absorbed on an empty stomach.
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