Nursing Elites

1. A client at risk for coronary artery disease seeks advice from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?

• A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
• B. Exercise for 150 minutes per week.
• C. Take iron supplements daily.
• D. Limit fruits and vegetables in your diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease is to exercise for at least 150 minutes per week. Regular exercise is crucial in maintaining cardiovascular health and reducing the chances of developing heart disease. Increasing intake of saturated fats (Choice A) is counterproductive as it can raise cholesterol levels and contribute to arterial plaque formation. Taking iron supplements daily (Choice C) is not directly related to reducing the risk of coronary artery disease. Limiting fruits and vegetables in the diet (Choice D) is also not advisable, as they are essential components of a heart-healthy diet due to their high fiber and nutrient content.

2. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. A peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread
• B. A sliced apple and red grapes
• C. A chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk
• D. A scrambled egg with cheddar cheese

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

3. A nurse is discussing immunity with a client who has received an immunization. The nurse should identify that an immunization functions as part of which of the following types of immunity?

• A. Innate immunity
• B. Passive immunity
• C. Acquired immunity
• D. Natural immunity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immunizations provide acquired immunity. They work by introducing antigens into the body, which triggers the immune system to produce antibodies specific to that antigen. Choice A, 'Innate immunity,' refers to the natural defense mechanisms an organism is born with and does not involve immunizations. Choice B, 'Passive immunity,' is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies and does not involve immunizations. Choice D, 'Natural immunity,' is a general term that encompasses all immunity that is not acquired through deliberate immunization or passive transfer of antibodies.

4. A client is being educated about using an intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to have the IUD replaced each year.
• B. I will need to apply a spermicide prior to intercourse.
• C. I should expect my periods to stop while I have the IUD.
• D. I should check for the string each month after menstruation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client should check for the string each month after menstruation to ensure the IUD is in place. This practice helps in identifying any displacement of the IUD. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A is incorrect because IUDs have different durations depending on the type, not all require yearly replacement. B is incorrect because IUDs do not require spermicide for effectiveness. C is incorrect because while some individuals may experience changes in their menstrual patterns, it is not guaranteed that periods will stop while using an IUD.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

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