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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is experiencing negative symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Delusions
- C. Flat affect
- D. Paranoia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flat affect. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia involve deficits in normal emotional responses or other thought processes. These symptoms include a flat affect (reduced emotional expression), social withdrawal, and avolition (lack of motivation). Hallucinations and delusions are characteristic of positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or experiences. Paranoia is more associated with delusions rather than negative symptoms.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Shallow breathing
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Warm, dry skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Shallow breathing is a key indicator of respiratory distress, reflecting an inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Bradycardia (Choice B) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct sign of respiratory distress. Increased appetite (Choice C) and warm, dry skin (Choice D) are unrelated to respiratory distress. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- B. Glucose 50 mg/dL
- C. Bilirubin 4 mg/dL
- D. Platelets 200,000/mm³
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?
- A. Increased urinary output
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and has been receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC 3,000/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- C. Platelets 250,000/mm3
- D. aPTT 30 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates neutropenia, a dangerous complication of chemotherapy that increases the risk of infection and requires immediate attention. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy and can lead to life-threatening infections. Reporting a low WBC count is crucial to ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate risks to the client undergoing chemotherapy.
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