a nurse is admitting a client who has recently developed fever confusion and a decreased level of consciousness which of the following actions should
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz

1. When admitting a client with fever, confusion, and decreased level of consciousness, what should the nurse do first after obtaining the client's history and assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client presents with fever, confusion, and decreased level of consciousness, the first step should be to identify the client's needs. This involves recognizing any immediate concerns or issues that require urgent attention. Starting intravenous fluids, notifying the provider, or conducting a neurological assessment may be necessary actions but should come after identifying the client's needs to ensure proper prioritization of care.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client after surgery. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' After surgery, it is essential for clients to watch for signs of infection, such as increased redness, swelling, or drainage at the incision site. Choice A is incorrect because resuming normal activities immediately after surgery can be harmful. Choice C is incorrect as complete avoidance of physical activity for a month is typically not necessary and can lead to complications like blood clots. Choice D is incorrect as taking pain medications only as needed may not provide adequate pain management post-surgery.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adult clients. The nurse should identify which of the following as a risk factor for developing infections?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered immune system function. In older adults, a decline in immune system function increases the risk of developing infections. Increased physical activity (choice A) and proper nutrition (choice D) generally support immune function and overall health, reducing the risk of infections. Regular health screenings (choice C) are important for early detection of health issues but do not directly increase the risk of infections.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, administering calcium gluconate IV is crucial as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate helps reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate, especially when signs of toxicity like respiratory depression or loss of reflexes occur. Increasing the magnesium sulfate infusion would worsen toxicity. Administering IV fluids may be beneficial for hydration but does not address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Hydralazine is used to manage hypertension, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.

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