ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A healthcare provider is educating a patient on the use of alendronate. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Take it with food
- B. Take it once a week
- C. It can be taken at bedtime
- D. Monitor for increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take it once a week.' Alendronate is typically taken once a week to treat osteoporosis. It should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning with a full glass of water. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice D is unrelated to alendronate use and not a common side effect associated with this medication.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks pregnant and reports leaking fluid. Which of the following tests should the nurse use to confirm that the client's membranes have ruptured?
- A. Nonstress test
- B. Biophysical profile
- C. Fern test
- D. Amniocentesis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the Fern test. The Fern test is specifically used to confirm the rupture of membranes. A sample of vaginal fluid is examined under a microscope, and the presence of a fern-like pattern indicates the presence of amniotic fluid. The Nonstress test (Choice A) is used to monitor fetal heart rate and movement, not to confirm ruptured membranes. The Biophysical profile (Choice B) is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation to assess fetal well-being, not to confirm ruptured membranes. Amniocentesis (Choice D) involves the aspiration of amniotic fluid for various diagnostic purposes, not specifically to confirm ruptured membranes.
3. A nurse is planning care for an adolescent client with chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage a diet high in calcium
- B. Provide a diet high in potassium
- C. Ensure increased fluid intake
- D. Restrict protein intake to the RDA
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In chronic renal failure, it is essential to restrict protein intake to the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) to reduce the accumulation of waste products that the kidneys can no longer effectively eliminate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in chronic renal failure, high calcium, high potassium, and increased fluid intake can further strain the kidneys and worsen the condition.
4. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
- A. 19 gtt/min
- B. 20 gtt/min
- C. 21 gtt/min
- D. 22 gtt/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.
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