a nurse is providing education on the use of alendronate which of the following should be included
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A healthcare provider is educating a patient on the use of alendronate. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take it once a week.' Alendronate is typically taken once a week to treat osteoporosis. It should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning with a full glass of water. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice D is unrelated to alendronate use and not a common side effect associated with this medication.

2. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

3. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. There should be 2 cm of water in the water seal chamber of the chest tube system. A level of 1 cm may indicate a leak or compromised functionality that requires intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not findings that necessarily require immediate intervention. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations is an expected finding, the drainage collection chamber being 1/3 full is within normal limits, and a suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O indicates appropriate suction for chest drainage.

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