ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
- A. Respiratory rate of 12/min
- B. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
- C. Urine output 40 mL/hr
- D. Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diminished deep tendon reflexes are a sign of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to decreased reflexes. Respiratory rate of 12/min, urine output 40 mL/hr, and systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg are not specific findings of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory depression, oliguria, and hypotension are more concerning signs that require immediate attention.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Administer it as a bolus
- B. Dilute the medication
- C. Give it rapidly
- D. Monitor respiratory rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: Dilute the medication. Potassium chloride should always be diluted before administration to avoid irritation and complications. Choice A is incorrect because administering it as a bolus can lead to adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect as giving it rapidly can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring the respiratory rate is not directly related to administering potassium chloride.
3. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?
- A. Fetal heart rate
- B. Client's blood pressure
- C. Client's respiratory rate
- D. Client's pain level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.
4. An antepartum client is Rh negative and understands that she will receive a RhoGAM injection during her pregnancy. The client asks the nurse if she will also receive a RhoGAM injection after the birth of her baby. The client will receive RhoGAM after the birth if blood tests are:
- A. Mother Rh positive; baby Rh negative
- B. Mother Rh negative; Coombs positive; baby Rh negative
- C. Mother Rh positive; Coombs negative; baby Rh positive
- D. Mother Rh negative; Coombs negative; baby Rh positive
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. If the baby is Rh positive and the mother is Rh negative, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood. RhoGAM is administered to prevent the mother's immune system from becoming sensitized to Rh-positive blood. Therefore, the mother, who is Rh negative, will receive RhoGAM after birth if the baby is Rh positive and both the mother and baby have negative Coombs tests. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not match the criteria for RhoGAM administration in this scenario.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Serum potassium levels
- B. Liver function
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.
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