Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor who is receiving oxytocin. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing contractions every 1 minute lasting 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the oxytocin infusion
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Prepare for delivery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take in this situation is to stop the oxytocin infusion. Contractions occurring every 1 minute lasting 90 seconds indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress by compromising oxygen supply. Stopping the oxytocin infusion will help reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions, allowing for better fetal oxygenation. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary if there are signs of fetal distress, but stopping the oxytocin is the priority. Increasing IV fluid rate (Choice C) is not the appropriate action in response to hyperstimulation. While preparing for delivery (Choice D) may eventually be necessary, the immediate action should be to address the hyperstimulation by stopping the oxytocin infusion.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Immunosuppressant medications need to be taken for up to 1 year
• B. Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection
• C. The surgical site will heal in 3 to 4 weeks after surgery
• D. Begin 45 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per day following discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because shortness of breath is an indication of transplant rejection, along with other manifestations like fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because immunosuppressant medications are usually taken for life to prevent rejection. Choice C is incorrect as the surgical site may take longer to heal fully. Choice D is incorrect as the initiation of exercise post-heart transplant should be gradual and individualized based on the client's condition.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart
• B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
• C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
• D. Withhold heparin IV infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to withhold heparin IV infusion. The nurse should withhold heparin if there are signs of complications, such as bleeding, or if there are contraindications to continuing anticoagulation therapy. Positioning the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart helps reduce swelling and improve blood flow. Administering acetaminophen for pain management can be appropriate, but it is not the priority in this situation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications, so it should be avoided.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes who is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Give the client a carbohydrate snack
• C. Call for assistance
• D. Monitor blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give the client a carbohydrate snack. When a client is experiencing hypoglycemia, the priority intervention is to raise their blood glucose levels quickly. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower the blood glucose levels and is contra-indicated in this situation. Calling for assistance (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over addressing the low blood sugar. Monitoring blood glucose (Choice D) is important but not the initial action needed to raise blood glucose levels rapidly.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

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