Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Dehydration
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Poor nutrition
• D. Poor tissue perfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

2. A community health nurse is teaching a group of clients about first aid for different types of wounds. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should apply clean dressings over blood-saturated dressings and hold pressure.
• B. I will rinse the wound with hot water to cleanse it.
• C. I can remove the dressing once the bleeding stops.
• D. I should apply antibiotic ointment directly to the wound.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because applying clean dressings over blood-saturated dressings and holding pressure helps prevent disruption of wound tissue, aiding in the clotting process and controlling bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as rinsing a wound with hot water can cause further tissue damage. Choice C is incorrect as the dressing should not be removed once applied as it can disrupt the formation of a clot. Choice D is incorrect as antibiotic ointment should not be applied directly to the wound during initial first aid.

3. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Constipation
• C. Oral candidiasis
• D. Sedation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.

4. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Pale skin
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Pale skin.' Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, which affects the skin color. Anemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, leading to a paler complexion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Increased energy' is not typically associated with anemia, as fatigue is a common symptom. 'Elevated blood pressure' is not a typical finding in anemia; instead, anemia may cause hypotension. 'Weight gain' is not a direct symptom of anemia; in fact, weight loss may occur in some cases due to reduced appetite or other factors associated with anemia.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

• A. Confusion
• B. Thirst
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Shakiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

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