a nurse is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture what is a risk of developing pressure injuries
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg is a crucial intervention in the care of a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This position helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, which can alleviate symptoms associated with DVT. Applying ice packs (Choice A) may worsen the condition by causing vasoconstriction. Encouraging ambulation (Choice B) can dislodge the clot and lead to fatal complications. Massaging the affected area (Choice D) can also dislodge the clot and is contraindicated in DVT.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Inhaling the medication deeply for 3-5 seconds and holding the breath for 10 seconds after inhalation ensures effective medication delivery to the lungs. Choice A is the correct instruction for the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Choice B, exhaling forcefully before inhaling, is incorrect as it can lead to decreased medication delivery. Choice C, shaking the MDI vigorously before use, is also incorrect as excessive shaking can cause the medication to clump. Choice D, holding the mouthpiece 2.5-5 cm (1-2 in) in front of the mouth, is not recommended as it may lead to improper inhalation technique.

5. A nurse is updating a plan of care after evaluating a client who has dysphagia. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to have them sit upright for 1 hour following meals. This position facilitates swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because having the client lie down after meals can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as talking while eating can lead to choking. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids may be harder for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.

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