a nurse is discussing recommendations for daily nutrient intake during pregnancy with a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation for which of the follow
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PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A healthcare provider is discussing recommendations for daily nutrient intake during pregnancy with a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation. For which of the following nutrients should the healthcare provider instruct the client to increase intake during pregnancy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium. During pregnancy, it is essential to increase calcium intake as it is crucial for fetal bone development and to prevent maternal bone loss. Adequate calcium supports the increased needs of both the mother and the developing baby. Vitamin E, Vitamin D, and fiber are also important nutrients, but the specific nutrient that needs to be increased during pregnancy for bone development is calcium. Vitamin E is an antioxidant that plays a role in protecting cells from damage, Vitamin D helps with calcium absorption and bone health, and fiber is important for digestive health but does not specifically need to be increased during pregnancy for bone development.

2. During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An irregularly shaped, nontender lump is a concerning finding as it may indicate breast cancer. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further investigation. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning findings. Tenderness during menstruation is a common finding due to hormonal changes. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation are often benign findings like fibrocystic changes. Breast tenderness before menstruation is also a common occurrence related to hormonal fluctuations.

3. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A sodium level of 122 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is characterized by decreased deep tendon reflexes. Hyponatremia leads to neurological symptoms such as altered reflexes. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with hyponatremia. Positive Trousseau’s sign is related to hypocalcemia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be seen in paralytic ileus or decreased peristalsis, and sticky mucous membranes are not specific findings related to sodium imbalances.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

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