Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is verifying nasogastric tube placement by the pH of aspirated gastric fluid. Which of the following pH values provides a good indication of correct tube placement?

• A. 2
• B. 5
• C. 7
• D. 9

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: '2'. Gastric contents with a pH between 0 and 4 provide a good indication of appropriate tube placement. A pH of 2 is within this range, indicating that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a pH of 5, 7, or 9 does not fall within the expected acidic pH range of gastric fluid.

2. A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with the parents of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. We will place the baby on its back to sleep
• B. We will give the baby a pacifier at bedtime
• C. We will keep the baby's crib free of blankets and toys
• D. We will leave the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Leaving the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash is not recommended because it increases the risk of infection. Proper diaper hygiene and frequent diaper changes are more effective in preventing diaper rash. Choices A, B, and C are correct as placing the baby on its back to sleep, giving the baby a pacifier at bedtime, and keeping the baby's crib free of blankets and toys are appropriate measures to ensure the newborn's safety and reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).

3. A nurse on an acute med-surgical unit is performing assessments on a group of clients. Which is the highest priority?

• A. Client with surgical hypoparathyroidism and positive Trousseau's sign
• B. Client with Clostridium difficile and acute diarrhea
• C. Client with acute kidney injury and low urine specific gravity
• D. Client with oral cancer and reports a sore on his gums

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A positive Trousseau's sign indicates hypocalcemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications like tetany or laryngospasm, making it the highest priority. Choices B, C, and D, while important, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential complications of severe hypocalcemia seen in a client with surgical hypoparathyroidism and a positive Trousseau's sign.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is prioritizing care for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A 6-year-old with a dislocated shoulder
• B. A 26-year-old with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
• C. A 76-year-old with confusion, fever, and foul-smelling urine
• D. A 50-year-old with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with slurred speech, disorientation, and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Identifying and managing a stroke promptly can reduce the risk of long-term disability or complications. The other options, although important, do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. A dislocated shoulder, severe joint pain in sickle cell disease, confusion with fever and foul-smelling urine, while concerning, can be addressed after attending to the client with potential stroke symptoms.

5. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash and has a minor traumatic brain injury (TBI). What finding should the nurse recognize as a complication and report to the provider?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Vomiting
• C. Drainage from the ear
• D. Unequal pupils

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Unequal pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or worsening brain injury, indicating a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Hypertension, vomiting, and drainage from the ear are not typically associated with minor traumatic brain injury complications; therefore, they are not the priority findings to report to the provider.

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