Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
• B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
• C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
• D. Withhold heparin IV infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Withholding heparin IV infusion is the priority if there is a risk of complications such as bleeding, which must be evaluated before continuing treatment.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 10 mg
• B. 20 mg
• C. 30 mg
• D. 40 mg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 10 kg. Next, multiply the weight in kilograms by the dosage: 4 mg/kg x 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since the total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, each dose would be 20 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice A (10 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight-based dosage. Choice C (30 mg) and Choice D (40 mg) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the dose based on the weight of the toddler and the prescribed dosage per kg.

3. A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record and notes that the client is taking tamoxifen. The nurse should identify that tamoxifen is used to treat which of the following conditions?

• A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
• B. Endometriosis
• C. Breast cancer
• D. Polycystic ovary syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen medication primarily used to treat hormone receptor-positive breast cancer. It works by blocking estrogen receptors in breast tissue, slowing the growth of tumors that require estrogen to grow. Choice A, Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, is incorrect because tamoxifen is not indicated for its treatment. Choice B, Endometriosis, is incorrect as tamoxifen is not used for this condition. Choice D, Polycystic ovary syndrome, is also incorrect since tamoxifen is not a treatment for this syndrome.

4. A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. INR levels
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, meaning it can cause kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and detect any signs of nephrotoxicity. Blood glucose levels (choice A) are not directly affected by vancomycin. INR levels (choice C) are typically monitored for clients on anticoagulants, not vancomycin. Liver function tests (choice D) are not primarily affected by vancomycin use; kidney function is of greater concern.

5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain. The client's respiratory rate has decreased from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Flumazenil
• C. Activated charcoal
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose, including hydromorphone. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, and a significant decrease in respiratory rate from 16 to 6 breaths per minute indicates respiratory compromise. Naloxone should be administered promptly to reverse the effects of the opioid and restore normal respiratory function. Flumazenil (Choice B) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for gastrointestinal decontamination in cases of overdose with certain substances, but it is not the appropriate intervention for opioid-induced respiratory depression. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and has no role in managing opioid overdose or respiratory depression.

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