Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?

• A. Cornbread
• B. Mashed potatoes
• C. Lentils
• D. Tortillas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tortillas. Clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is often found in tortillas. Cornbread, mashed potatoes, and lentils are gluten-free options, making them safe for individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, and C) do not need to be removed from the meal tray.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours post-surgery. The client has an indwelling urinary catheter, and the nurse notes a urinary output of 15 mL/hr. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Irrigate the catheter
• B. Assess the patency of the catheter
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Notify the provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should first assess the patency of the catheter to ensure that the low output is not caused by a blockage. It is crucial to rule out any obstructions before considering other interventions. Irrigating the catheter without verifying patency may worsen the situation if there is a blockage. Increasing IV fluid rate may not address the underlying issue if the problem lies with the catheter. Notifying the provider should come after ensuring the catheter's patency.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

• A. 2100
• B. 900
• C. 1300
• D. 1800

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?

• A. Potassium supplements
• B. Ciprofloxacin
• C. Escitalopram
• D. Magnesium supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels in the body. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid potassium supplements to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not have significant interactions with lisinopril that would lead to adverse effects like hyperkalemia.

5. A nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Glaucoma
• B. Hypertension
• C. Polycythemia
• D. Migraine headaches

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to its potential to increase intraocular pressure, which can exacerbate the condition. Hypertension, polycythemia, and migraine headaches are not contraindications for isosorbide mononitrate. In fact, isosorbide mononitrate is commonly used in the management of hypertension and certain types of angina.

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