Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

• A. Confusion
• B. Thirst
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Shakiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

2. A home health nurse is providing teaching to a patient who has a new diagnosis of a gastric ulcer and a new prescription for sucralfate oral suspension. What statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medicine with meals.
• B. I will take this medicine right before bed.
• C. I will take this medicine 1 hour before meals and at bedtime.
• D. I will take this medicine only when I have symptoms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals, and at bedtime to coat the ulcer and protect it from stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect because taking it with meals may reduce its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect as it should not be taken right before bed. Choice D is incorrect as sucralfate should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.

3. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Nitrofurantoin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 11,000/mm³
• B. Hgb 11.2 g/dL
• C. Hct 34%
• D. Platelets 140,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 140,000/mm³ is at the lower end of the normal range but can be concerning in pregnancy, especially if there are signs of thrombocytopenia or bleeding. Thrombocytopenia in pregnancy can lead to complications such as bleeding during childbirth or excessive bleeding postpartum. The other laboratory values mentioned are within normal ranges for pregnancy and do not typically raise immediate concerns. High WBC counts can be a normal response to pregnancy, hemoglobin levels around 11.2 g/dL and hematocrit levels around 34% are also considered normal in the third trimester.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Aspirate before injecting
• B. Massage the site after injecting
• C. Administer the injection in the abdomen
• D. Inject at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin is to inject the medication in the abdomen subcutaneously. This route ensures proper absorption of the medication. Aspiration is not necessary before injecting enoxaparin as it is a subcutaneous injection, not an intramuscular injection. Massaging the site after injecting should be avoided to prevent bruising. Enoxaparin injections are typically given at a 45 to 90-degree angle, not necessarily at a strict 90-degree angle.

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