Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Slurred speech is a common sign of stroke and should be assessed immediately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, elevated heart rate, and hyperactivity are not typical signs of a stroke.

2. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods
• B. Limit sodium intake
• C. Avoid potassium supplements
• D. Increase protein intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who is lactose intolerant about dietary choices. Which food should the nurse recommend to increase calcium intake?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice for individuals with lactose intolerance who need to avoid dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium compared to spinach, and therefore, not the best recommendation for increasing calcium intake in lactose-intolerant individuals.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adults (OA). The provider should identify that which of the following is a risk factor that places OA at an increased risk for developing infections?

• A. Improved circulation
• B. Increased immune function
• C. Lowered immune system function
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lowered immune system function.' As individuals age, their immune system tends to weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because improved circulation and increased immune function would typically reduce the risk of infections, while dehydration can impact overall health but is not directly related to immune system function in the context of infection risk.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy and has gestational diabetes. Which of the following complications is the fetus at risk for?

• A. Macrosomia
• B. Hydrocephalus
• C. Cleft palate
• D. Spina bifida

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Macrosomia. Gestational diabetes can result in fetal macrosomia, a condition where the baby grows larger than normal due to excess glucose in the mother's blood. This increases the risk of complications during delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain. Cleft palate is a congenital condition where there is a split or opening in the roof of the mouth. Spina bifida is a neural tube defect characterized by the incomplete development of the spinal cord or its coverings.

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