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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Slurred speech
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Elevated heart rate
- D. Hyperactivity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Slurred speech is a common sign of stroke and should be assessed immediately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, elevated heart rate, and hyperactivity are not typical signs of a stroke.
2. During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?
- A. A client with cystic fibrosis who has a productive cough and reports thirst
- B. A client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused
- C. A client with diabetes mellitus whose blood glucose is 185 mg/dL
- D. A client with sickle cell anemia who reports pain 15 minutes after receiving analgesics
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis are concerning findings that may indicate severe dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention. While the other options are important, they do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the altered mental status in a client with gastroenteritis.
3. A nurse on a postpartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who gave birth 1 day ago and needs Rho(D) immune globulin
- B. A client who gave birth 3 days ago and reports breast fullness
- C. A client who gave birth 12 hours ago and reports an increase in urinary output
- D. A client who gave birth 8 hours ago and is saturating a perineal pad every hour
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should see the client saturating a perineal pad every hour first. This client may be experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention. The other options describe clients with less urgent needs. The client needing Rho(D) immune globulin can wait, the breast fullness in the client who gave birth 3 days ago can be addressed after managing the postpartum hemorrhage, and an increase in urinary output in a client who gave birth 12 hours ago is not indicative of an immediate emergency like postpartum hemorrhage.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a vaccine to a child. Which of the following should the provider verify?
- A. Allergy to eggs
- B. Previous vaccination history
- C. Family medical history
- D. Growth charts
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare provider should verify the child's previous vaccination history to ensure they are up to date with immunizations. This is important to prevent unnecessary or duplicate vaccinations and ensure the child is adequately protected against vaccine-preventable diseases. Checking for allergies to eggs is relevant for certain vaccines like the influenza vaccine but is not the top priority in this scenario. Family medical history and growth charts are not directly related to the administration of vaccines and are not as crucial as confirming the child's vaccination status.
5. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.
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