Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Improved lung sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed the HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, atorvastatin. Which of the following should be monitored while this medication is prescribed?

• A. Liver function test
• B. Renal function test
• C. Hearing screenings
• D. Visual acuity screenings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atorvastatin, an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, can lead to hepatotoxicity. Therefore, monitoring liver function through regular tests is essential. Baseline liver function should be assessed, followed by tests at 12 weeks after starting therapy and periodically thereafter. This monitoring helps detect early signs of liver damage, including jaundice, nausea, and dark urine. Incorrect Choices Rationale: B) Renal function test is not directly affected by atorvastatin. C) Hearing screenings and D) Visual acuity screenings are not indicated for monitoring while on atorvastatin therapy.

3. A client is receiving digoxin therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum electrolytes
• C. Blood pressure
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving digoxin therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor liver function, serum electrolytes (especially potassium levels), and blood pressure. Digoxin is known to affect the heart's electrical activity and can lead to toxic effects if not managed properly. Monitoring liver function helps to assess the drug's metabolism and excretion. Checking serum electrolytes, especially potassium, is essential because digoxin toxicity can be exacerbated by electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Monitoring blood pressure is necessary because digoxin can influence cardiac contractility and heart rate, potentially affecting blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one or two of these parameters may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to digoxin therapy.

4. A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?

• A. Wipe from front to back after urination
• B. Drink 2-3 liters of water per day
• C. Avoid holding urine for long periods
• D. Wear loose-fitting underwear

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.

5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

• A. 4
• B. 7 (comatose)
• C. 9
• D. 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

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