a nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of nitrofurantoin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nitrofurantoin can cause a harmless brown discoloration of urine. Choice B is also correct as it should be taken with food to enhance absorption. Choice C is incorrect as nitrofurantoin does have side effects, such as gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice D is incorrect as nitrofurantoin is not recommended during the last month of pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

3. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. What dietary change should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit alcohol consumption. When managing hypertension, it is crucial to reduce alcohol intake as it can raise blood pressure. High alcohol consumption can also interfere with the effectiveness of antihypertensive medications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake (Choice A) is not recommended for hypertension as it can lead to fluid retention and elevated blood pressure. Eating a high-protein diet (Choice C) or following a high-fat diet (Choice D) are also not ideal for managing hypertension, as they can have negative impacts on cardiovascular health.

5. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.

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