Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Improved lung sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

2. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Oxytocin
• B. Nifedipine
• C. Dinoprostone
• D. Misoprostol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice in this scenario. It is a calcium channel blocker that helps suppress uterine contractions and halt preterm labor. Nifedipine is commonly used to manage preterm labor in pregnant women by relaxing the smooth muscle of the uterus. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce or augment labor, not to inhibit contractions. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, not for stopping preterm labor.

3. A nurse is teaching about measures to promote sleep for a client with insomnia. What statement indicates understanding?

• A. I should reduce my fluid intake to 2 hours before bedtime
• B. I will watch TV in bed before sleeping
• C. I can take long naps during the day
• D. I should exercise right before going to bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reducing fluid intake to 2-4 hours before sleeping helps prevent interruptions during the night, promoting better sleep. Watching TV in bed before sleeping (choice B) can actually hinder sleep due to the stimulation from screens. Taking long naps during the day (choice C) can disrupt the natural sleep-wake cycle. Exercising right before going to bed (choice D) can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.

4. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

5. A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Instill erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
• B. Place identification bracelets on the newborn
• C. Weigh the newborn
• D. Dry the newborn

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Drying the newborn is the first priority to prevent heat loss, which can occur rapidly in newborns due to their large surface area and lack of body fat. This helps maintain the newborn's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Instilling erythromycin ophthalmic ointment, placing identification bracelets, and weighing the newborn can be important steps but should come after ensuring the newborn is dried to maintain their body temperature.

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