a nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Atorvastatin, a medication commonly used to lower cholesterol levels, can potentially cause liver damage as a side effect. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any abnormalities early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atorvastatin is not known to directly impact potassium levels, blood glucose levels, or serum calcium levels. While these parameters may be monitored for other reasons, the priority when administering atorvastatin is to monitor liver function due to the risk of hepatotoxicity.

3. A nurse is updating a plan of care after evaluating a client who has dysphagia. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to have them sit upright for 1 hour following meals. This position facilitates swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because having the client lie down after meals can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as talking while eating can lead to choking. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids may be harder for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.

4. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.

5. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult. Cardiac rehabilitation is an essential part of the care plan for a client recovering from a myocardial infarction. It helps in improving recovery, enhancing quality of life, and reducing the risk of future cardiac events. Drawing troponin levels and performing EKGs are important for diagnosing and monitoring myocardial infarctions but are not interventions in the post-MI care plan. Oxygen therapy may be necessary based on the client's condition but is not specific to post-MI care.

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