a nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.

2. A nurse is planning care for a patient who follows the Mormon belief system. What modifications should the nurse include to meet Mormon dietary practices?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offer non-caffeinated beverage options. Mormons avoid caffeinated beverages, so providing non-caffeinated options aligns with their religious practices. Choice A is incorrect because offering only vegetarian meal options is not a specific requirement of the Mormon dietary practices. Choice C is incorrect as kosher meals are associated with Jewish dietary laws, not specific to the Mormon belief system. Choice D is incorrect as limiting meat to only fish and poultry is not a specific dietary requirement for Mormons.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving corticosteroids. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving corticosteroids, the nurse should monitor both blood glucose levels and blood pressure. Corticosteroids can elevate blood glucose levels, leading to hyperglycemia, and may cause hypertension. Monitoring these parameters is essential to detect and address any potential adverse effects promptly. While monitoring serum potassium levels is important in some situations, it is not a primary concern when caring for a client receiving corticosteroids. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate options for monitoring in this scenario, making option D the correct answer.

4. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

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