ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. When educating a patient about gabapentin use, what should the nurse include?
- A. It can cause sedation
- B. It can be taken with alcohol
- C. It is a pain reliever
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause sedation.' Gabapentin is known to cause sedation, and patients should be advised about this side effect, especially regarding activities that require alertness. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin should not be taken with alcohol as it can increase the risk of central nervous system depression. Choice C is incorrect because while gabapentin is used to treat nerve pain, it is not classified as a traditional pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as dizziness, drowsiness, and fatigue.
2. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about increasing calcium intake. Which of the following foods should be recommended as the best source of calcium?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Yogurt
- C. Spinach
- D. Almonds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Yogurt is the best choice for increasing calcium intake in a client with osteoporosis. It provides around 300-400 mg of calcium per serving, making it an excellent food source for meeting their calcium needs. Broccoli, spinach, and almonds, while nutritious, do not provide as much calcium per serving as yogurt and are not as effective in helping clients with osteoporosis increase their calcium intake.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hrs. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?
- A. 0.7 mL
- B. 0.8 mL
- C. 1.0 mL
- D. 1.2 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Calculation: 8000 units / 10,000 units per mL = 0.8 mL. To correctly administer the prescribed dose of 8000 units, the healthcare professional should draw up 0.8 mL from the 10,000 units/mL vial. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculation based on the available concentration of heparin.
4. A client has a new prescription for oxcarbazepine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Serum sodium levels
- C. Blood glucose
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum sodium levels. Oxcarbazepine can lead to hyponatremia, making it crucial to monitor serum sodium levels. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Blood glucose (choice C) monitoring is more relevant in medications affecting blood sugar levels. Heart rate (choice D) is not directly impacted by oxcarbazepine.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Signs of superinfection
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.
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