Nursing Elites

1. When educating a patient about gabapentin use, what should the nurse include?

• A. It can cause sedation
• B. It can be taken with alcohol
• C. It is a pain reliever
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause sedation.' Gabapentin is known to cause sedation, and patients should be advised about this side effect, especially regarding activities that require alertness. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin should not be taken with alcohol as it can increase the risk of central nervous system depression. Choice C is incorrect because while gabapentin is used to treat nerve pain, it is not classified as a traditional pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as dizziness, drowsiness, and fatigue.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has Parkinson’s disease and is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to eat thin liquids
• B. Instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing
• C. Give the client large pieces of food
• D. Have the client lie down after meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with Parkinson’s disease at risk for aspiration is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing. This action helps protect the airway and reduces the risk of aspiration in clients with impaired swallowing, which is common in Parkinson’s disease. Encouraging the client to eat thin liquids (Choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration as they are harder to control during swallowing. Giving the client large pieces of food (Choice C) can also increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Having the client lie down after meals (Choice D) can further increase the risk of aspiration due to the potential for reflux. Therefore, the best action to prevent aspiration in this situation is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing.

3. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is being taught about the signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Sudden weight loss
• B. Regular contractions
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Vaginal spotting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular contractions. Regular contractions before 37 weeks of gestation are a significant sign of preterm labor. It is essential for clients to be aware of this symptom and report it promptly to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sudden weight loss, shortness of breath, and vaginal spotting are not typical signs of preterm labor. Teaching clients about the specific signs of preterm labor can help in early detection and intervention, ultimately improving outcomes for both the client and the baby.

4. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

• A. Glasgow scale score of 15
• B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
• C. Report of dry mouth
• D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Call the provider if the respiratory rate is less than 18/min
• B. Administer a 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
• C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
• D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension and heart failure. It helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevent fluid retention. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A focuses on a respiratory rate, which is not specific to heart failure management. Option B suggests administering a large IV bolus of fluid, which can worsen heart failure by increasing fluid volume. Option D addresses the pulse rate, which is not a typical parameter to monitor for heart failure specifically.

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