ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?
- A. It can cause weight gain
- B. It should be taken with meals
- C. It is an injectable medication
- D. It can cause hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It should be taken with meals.' Metformin should be taken with meals to minimize gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is actually associated with weight loss or weight neutrality. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is typically taken orally and not via injection. Choice D is also incorrect because metformin is not known to cause hypoglycemia as a primary side effect.
2. A nurse is monitoring a client during an IV urography procedure. Which of the following client reports is the priority finding?
- A. Feeling flushed and warm
- B. Abdominal fullness
- C. Swollen lips
- D. Metallic taste in the mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Swollen lips indicate a potential allergic reaction or anaphylaxis to the contrast dye used during the procedure, which requires immediate medical intervention. Abdominal fullness and metallic taste are common side effects of IV urography and can be managed without urgent intervention. Feeling flushed and warm may also be a common reaction during the procedure and does not indicate a life-threatening situation like an allergic reaction.
3. A client who gave birth 12 hours ago is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing decreased cardiac output?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Flushed face
- C. Hypotension
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypotension is a key indicator of decreased cardiac output, especially in the context of postpartum hemorrhage, which can lead to significant fluid volume loss and compromise perfusion. In this scenario, the excessive vaginal bleeding could lead to hypovolemia, resulting in decreased cardiac output and subsequent hypotension. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output in this scenario, as the body often compensates for decreased cardiac output by increasing heart rate. A flushed face (choice B) may indicate vasodilation but is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and is not a specific indicator of decreased cardiac output in this context.
4. A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?
- A. Wipe from front to back after urination
- B. Drink 2-3 liters of water per day
- C. Avoid holding urine for long periods
- D. Wear loose-fitting underwear
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?
- A. Table salt
- B. Egg yolks
- C. White wine
- D. Oranges
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.
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