a nurse is caring for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be prescribed to confir
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

2. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal flaring can indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical finding requiring immediate attention. This may suggest an issue with breathing or lung function. Reporting nasal flaring promptly allows the provider to assess and intervene to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stable. Choices A, C, and D are within normal parameters for a 10-hour-old newborn and do not indicate an immediate concern. An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. A heart rate of 158/min is typical for a newborn, and one void since birth is an expected finding at this early stage.

3. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

4. A nurse has provided education to a client regarding prescribed levothyroxine sodium. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding of medication administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach to prevent insomnia and ensure proper absorption of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because taking levothyroxine at night may interfere with sleep and absorption. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can lead to negative health outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because levothyroxine is a daily medication that should be taken consistently, not just when symptoms are present.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

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