ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A home care nurse is following up with a postpartum client. Which of the following is a risk factor that places this client at risk for postpartum depression?
- A. History of anxiety
- B. Socioeconomic status
- C. Hormonal changes with a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone
- D. Support from family members
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Postpartum depression can be triggered by various factors, but one of the strongest predictors is a rapid drop in estrogen and progesterone levels following childbirth. These hormonal changes can affect mood regulation, making some women more vulnerable to depression during the postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are not direct risk factors associated with postpartum depression. While a history of anxiety may contribute, it is not as directly linked to the hormonal changes that occur postpartum. Socioeconomic status and support from family members may influence the overall well-being of the mother but are not specific risk factors for postpartum depression.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of alendronate. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
- A. Take it with food
- B. Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it
- C. It can be taken at bedtime
- D. It is safe to take with antacids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it.' Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation and to reduce the risk of this side effect, clients should be instructed to sit upright for at least 30 minutes after administration. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, usually in the morning, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, as the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of alendronate, so they should not be taken together.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?
- A. Periodic tingling of fingers
- B. Absence of clonus
- C. Leg cramps
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Blurred vision can be an indicator of serious conditions such as preeclampsia, which involves hypertension and can lead to significant maternal and fetal complications. Periodic tingling of fingers, absence of clonus, and leg cramps are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious prenatal complications like preeclampsia. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
4. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 weeks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this scenario is whether they have any active lesions. Active lesions from HSV-2 during labor increase the risk of neonatal transmission, which would necessitate a cesarean section to prevent the infant from contracting the virus during delivery. Asking about the presence of active lesions is crucial to determine the appropriate management and precautions needed to protect the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are not as pertinent in this situation and do not directly address the potential risk of neonatal transmission of HSV-2.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Increased energy
- B. Fever
- C. Improved appetite
- D. Stable weight
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. The correct answer is 'Fever.' Fever is a common sign of infection and indicates an immune response to an invading pathogen. Increased energy (Choice A) is not typically associated with infection, as the body often feels fatigued when fighting an infection. Improved appetite (Choice C) and stable weight (Choice D) are not specific signs of infection and may not necessarily indicate the presence of an infectious process. Therefore, the healthcare professional should focus on monitoring for fever as a key indicator of infection.
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