Nursing Elites

1. A home care nurse is following up with a postpartum client. Which of the following is a risk factor that places this client at risk for postpartum depression?

• A. History of anxiety
• B. Socioeconomic status
• C. Hormonal changes with a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone
• D. Support from family members

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postpartum depression can be triggered by various factors, but one of the strongest predictors is a rapid drop in estrogen and progesterone levels following childbirth. These hormonal changes can affect mood regulation, making some women more vulnerable to depression during the postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are not direct risk factors associated with postpartum depression. While a history of anxiety may contribute, it is not as directly linked to the hormonal changes that occur postpartum. Socioeconomic status and support from family members may influence the overall well-being of the mother but are not specific risk factors for postpartum depression.

2. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. Client placed in restraints for aggressive behavior
• B. A new client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
• C. Client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for increased anxiety
• D. Client who will be receiving his first ECT treatment today

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.

3. A client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has a diagnosis of placenta previa is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit physical activity
• B. Monitor fetal movements daily
• C. Call the healthcare provider if contractions begin
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with placenta previa are at an increased risk of bleeding and preterm labor. Therefore, it is essential for them to limit physical activity to prevent complications. Monitoring fetal movements daily helps in assessing the well-being of the fetus. Additionally, notifying the healthcare provider if contractions begin is crucial as it could be a sign of preterm labor. Therefore, all of the instructions (limiting physical activity, monitoring fetal movements, and calling the healthcare provider if contractions begin) are necessary for managing placenta previa effectively. Choices A, B, and C are all correct instructions for a client with placenta previa.

4. To reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), how should the parents position the newborn?

• A. Prone position
• B. Supine position
• C. Side-lying position
• D. Semi-Fowler's position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Supine position. Placing the newborn on their back (supine position) is the safest sleeping position to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position helps prevent airway obstruction, which can occur when infants are placed on their stomach (prone position), side (side-lying position), or in a semi-upright position (semi-Fowler's position). The prone position (choice A) is associated with an increased risk of SIDS, making it an unsafe choice. Side-lying position (choice C) and semi-Fowler's position (choice D) also pose risks of airway compromise and are not recommended for sleep positioning to prevent SIDS. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect in this context.

5. A nurse in the telemetry unit is receiving the laboratory findings for an adult male client who is being treated for a myocardial infarction. Which of the following is an expected finding for the client?

• A. Troponin I (TnI) 8 ng/mL
• B. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) 10 ng/L
• C. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45 units/L
• D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) 75 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Troponin I is a specific marker for myocardial infarction, and levels of 8 ng/mL are elevated, indicating heart muscle damage. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is more related to heart failure rather than myocardial infarction, making choice B incorrect. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a liver enzyme and not specific to myocardial infarction, so choice C is incorrect. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is a type of cholesterol and is not typically used to diagnose or monitor myocardial infarction, making choice D incorrect.

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