Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a group of clients in a long-term care facility. Which of the following situations should the nurse recognize as a safety hazard?

• A. A client’s wrist restraints tied to the bed rails
• B. A client’s bedside table placed across the foot of the bed
• C. A meal tray left at the bedside from breakfast
• D. A call light extension cord pinned to the bedspread

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tying wrist restraints to the bed rails is a safety hazard because if the bed rails are lowered, the restraints can tighten and cause injury or asphyxiation. Choice B, placing a bedside table across the foot of the bed, may not be ideal for convenience but does not pose a direct safety hazard. Choice C, leaving a meal tray at the bedside from breakfast, is more of an infection control issue than an immediate safety hazard. Choice D, having a call light extension cord pinned to the bedspread, is also not a direct safety hazard unless it poses a risk of entanglement or tripping, which is not indicated in the scenario.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication. Which client information should the nurse identify as a contributing factor to the decrease in the medication's effectiveness?

• A. Taking the medication with water
• B. Skipping doses of medication
• C. A history of recurring bowel inflammation
• D. Taking anti-inflammatory medication without food

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A history of recurring bowel inflammation can impact the absorption and effectiveness of arthritis medication. Bowel inflammation can affect the body's ability to absorb the medication properly, leading to decreased effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D do not directly relate to the decreased effectiveness of the arthritis medication. Taking medication with water, skipping doses, or taking anti-inflammatory medication without food may not be ideal practices but are not directly linked to the decrease in effectiveness reported by the client.

3. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. What intervention by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?

• A. Monitor for signs of illness.
• B. Teach students about healthy food choices.
• C. Administer medication to students with chronic conditions.
• D. Monitor immunization compliance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach students about healthy food choices. Teaching healthy habits like proper nutrition is an example of primary prevention because it aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Choice A, monitoring for signs of illness, is more related to secondary prevention (early detection and treatment). Choice C, administering medication to students with chronic conditions, is a form of tertiary prevention (managing existing conditions to prevent complications). Choice D, monitoring immunization compliance, is also a form of primary prevention but focuses on preventing specific infectious diseases through immunization rather than general health promotion.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Petechiae
• C. Change in mental status
• D. Edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.

5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

• A. 4
• B. 7 (comatose)
• C. 9
• D. 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

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