ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for an antidepressant. The client reports experiencing dry mouth. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?
- A. Decrease fluid intake.
- B. Chew sugarless gum.
- C. Avoid using mouthwash.
- D. Increase intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to chew sugarless gum. Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth by stimulating saliva production, which is a common side effect of many antidepressants. Decreasing fluid intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can worsen dry mouth. Avoiding mouthwash (choice C) is not as effective as chewing gum in stimulating saliva. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice D) is not directly related to managing dry mouth caused by antidepressants.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?
- A. The dressing was changed 7 days ago
- B. The circumference of the client’s upper arm has increased by 10%
- C. The catheter has not been used in 8 hours
- D. The catheter has been flushed with 10 mL of sterile saline after medication use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The circumference of the upper arm above the insertion site of the PICC should be measured at the time of insertion and then again during assessments. An increase in circumference could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which could be life-threatening. Choice A is not a concern as changing the dressing 7 days ago is within the recommended timeframe. Choice C is not alarming as the catheter not being used for 8 hours does not necessarily indicate a problem. Choice D indicates proper catheter care by flushing it with sterile saline after medication use, so it does not require provider notification.
3. A nurse receives a change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?
- A. A client who reports tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy
- B. A client who has dark, foul-smelling urine with a urine output of 320 mL in the last 8 hr
- C. A client who is in a long leg cast and reports cool feet bilaterally
- D. A client who has a productive cough and an oral temperature of 36°C (96.8°F)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cool feet bilaterally in a client with a long leg cast may indicate compromised circulation, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia but does not require immediate attention. Dark, foul-smelling urine with decreased urine output indicates a possible urinary tract infection or dehydration but can be addressed after attending to the client with compromised circulation. A productive cough and a normal oral temperature do not suggest an urgent condition compared to compromised circulation in a client with a long leg cast.
4. A nurse in an emergency department is serving on a committee that is reviewing the facility protocol for disaster readiness. The nurse should recommend that the protocol include which of the following as a clinical manifestation of smallpox?
- A. Bloody diarrhea
- B. Ptosis of the eyelids
- C. Descending paralysis
- D. Rash in the mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Rash in the mouth.' Smallpox presents with a distinctive rash that typically begins in the mouth and spreads to the rest of the body, developing into pustules. This rash is a key clinical manifestation of smallpox. This infectious disease is characterized by the rash, fever, and other systemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not associated with smallpox. Bloody diarrhea, ptosis of the eyelids, and descending paralysis are not typical clinical manifestations of smallpox.
5. A nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate?
- A. Increase calcium intake
- B. Increase potassium intake
- C. Increase protein intake
- D. Restrict protein intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake for a client with chronic renal failure. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. Excessive protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products, increasing the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, restricting protein intake is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for chronic renal failure. Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous in renal failure as impaired kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium. Increasing protein intake is contraindicated in chronic renal failure as it can worsen kidney function and increase the accumulation of waste products.
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