Nursing Elites

1. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Atropine
• D. Diazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

2. A nurse is providing education to a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and at risk for preterm labor. Which of the following signs should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?

• A. Lower back pain
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Decreased fetal movement
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lower back pain, especially if accompanied by uterine contractions or pressure, can be a sign of preterm labor. The client should report this immediately to prevent complications or early delivery. Shortness of breath (Choice B), decreased fetal movement (Choice C), and nausea and vomiting (Choice D) can be common during pregnancy but are not typically associated with preterm labor. While they should be monitored, they are not immediate signs of concern for preterm labor.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has a diagnosis of group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Azithromycin
• C. Ceftriaxone
• D. Acyclovir

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ampicillin is the correct choice for treating group B streptococcus infections in pregnant women during labor to prevent neonatal infection. Group B streptococcus is commonly treated with penicillin or ampicillin; therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Azithromycin is not the first-line treatment for group B streptococcus. Ceftriaxone is not the preferred antibiotic for this infection during labor. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like group B streptococcus.

4. A charge nurse is preparing an educational session about addictive disorders for nursing staff. Which of the following should the nurse include as an etiological factor of addictive disorder?

• A. Low self-esteem
• B. Family history of addiction
• C. Personality disorders
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Addiction is influenced by various factors, including low self-esteem, family history of addiction, and specific personality traits. Low self-esteem can lead individuals to seek solace in substances, a family history of addiction can increase the likelihood of developing addictive behaviors due to genetic and environmental factors, and certain personality disorders may contribute to addictive tendencies. Therefore, all the factors listed in choices A, B, and C can play a role in the development of addictive disorders. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because addictive disorders are multifactorial, and it is essential to consider a combination of influences rather than isolating a single factor.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. A Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65.
• B. Pap tests are recommended following removal of the ovaries.
• C. Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.
• D. Viral infections cannot be detected by a Pap test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.

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