Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing education on the use of calcium carbonate. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause hypocalcemia
• B. Monitor for constipation
• C. It can be taken anytime
• D. It is a prescription medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for constipation.' Calcium carbonate can cause constipation as a side effect. Educating clients on dietary adjustments, such as increasing fluid intake and fiber consumption, can help alleviate this issue. Choice A is incorrect because calcium carbonate supplementation is used to treat hypocalcemia, not cause it. Choice C is incorrect because calcium carbonate should be taken with food for optimal absorption. Choice D is incorrect because calcium carbonate is available over the counter, not as a prescription medication.

2. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about increasing calcium intake. Which of the following foods should be recommended as the best source of calcium?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Yogurt
• C. Spinach
• D. Almonds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yogurt is the best choice for increasing calcium intake in a client with osteoporosis. It provides around 300-400 mg of calcium per serving, making it an excellent food source for meeting their calcium needs. Broccoli, spinach, and almonds, while nutritious, do not provide as much calcium per serving as yogurt and are not as effective in helping clients with osteoporosis increase their calcium intake.

3. A client with cholecystitis has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of the education?

• A. Roast beef with gravy, mashed potatoes, ice cream
• B. Macaroni and cheese, salad, pudding
• C. Creamed chicken on a roll with peas
• D. Roast turkey, rice pilaf, green beans

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Roast turkey is a lean protein option suitable for a low-fat diet. Rice pilaf and green beans are also low in fat. Choices A, B, and C contain high-fat ingredients like gravy, cheese, cream, and ice cream, which are not suitable for a low-fat diet.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?

• A. Periodic tingling of fingers
• B. Absence of clonus
• C. Leg cramps
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blurred vision can be an indicator of serious conditions such as preeclampsia, which involves hypertension and can lead to significant maternal and fetal complications. Periodic tingling of fingers, absence of clonus, and leg cramps are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious prenatal complications like preeclampsia. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

• A. Increased urinary output
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

Similar Questions