Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
• B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• C. Absent deep tendon reflexes
• D. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is below the normal range and requires immediate intervention. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr (Choice A) is within the normal range for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Absent deep tendon reflexes (Choice C) are an expected finding due to the medication's effect on neuromuscular excitability. A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not a priority concern compared to severe respiratory depression.

2. A client who signed an informed consent form for surgery but has since expressed doubts about the need for surgery should discuss concerns with the surgeon to obtain informed answers. Which statement should the nurse make?

• A. It's normal to feel unsure; the surgery will be beneficial
• B. You can cancel surgery any time without any consequences
• C. I'll inform the surgeon to answer your questions before surgery
• D. We can reschedule surgery for another day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the nurse should facilitate communication between the client and the surgeon to address any doubts and provide necessary information. Choice A may invalidate the client's concerns and might not address the root of the issue. Choice B oversimplifies the situation and might not consider the potential consequences of canceling surgery. Choice D, while offering an alternative, does not address the client's doubts about the surgery.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the motor skill development of a 15-month-old toddler during a well-child visit. What gross motor skills should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Walks without assistance using a wide stance
• B. Climbs stairs with assistance
• C. Runs smoothly
• D. Kicks a ball forward

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. At 15 months, toddlers typically walk independently but may do so with a wide stance for balance. Choice B, climbing stairs with assistance, is more common around 18 months. Choice C, running smoothly, is usually achieved around 2 years of age. Choice D, kicking a ball forward, generally develops around 2 to 3 years of age. Therefore, for a 15-month-old toddler, the nurse should expect the child to walk without assistance using a wide stance for balance.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Erythrocyte count
• B. Neutrophil count
• C. Lymphocyte count
• D. Thrombocyte count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Filgrastim is used to increase neutrophil production in clients undergoing chemotherapy or with bone marrow suppression. A rise in neutrophil count indicates the medication is working effectively to boost immune response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as filgrastim primarily targets neutrophils, not erythrocytes, lymphocytes, or thrombocytes.

5. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. What intervention by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?

• A. Monitor for signs of illness.
• B. Teach students about healthy food choices.
• C. Administer medication to students with chronic conditions.
• D. Monitor immunization compliance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach students about healthy food choices. Teaching healthy habits like proper nutrition is an example of primary prevention because it aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Choice A, monitoring for signs of illness, is more related to secondary prevention (early detection and treatment). Choice C, administering medication to students with chronic conditions, is a form of tertiary prevention (managing existing conditions to prevent complications). Choice D, monitoring immunization compliance, is also a form of primary prevention but focuses on preventing specific infectious diseases through immunization rather than general health promotion.

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