Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
• B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• C. Absent deep tendon reflexes
• D. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is below the normal range and requires immediate intervention. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr (Choice A) is within the normal range for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Absent deep tendon reflexes (Choice C) are an expected finding due to the medication's effect on neuromuscular excitability. A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not a priority concern compared to severe respiratory depression.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?

• A. Lidocaine
• B. Adenosine
• C. Atropine
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydroxychloroquine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Eye exams
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye exams. Hydroxychloroquine can cause retinal damage, making it essential for the nurse to monitor the client's eyes regularly for any changes. Monitoring liver function tests (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), or complete blood count (choice D) are not directly associated with the potential side effects of hydroxychloroquine.

4. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

5. A nurse is checking laboratory results for a client. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates hypervolemia?

• A. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
• B. Urine specific gravity 1.001
• C. Serum calcium 10 mg/dL
• D. Urine pH 6

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity of 1.001 is low and indicates dilute urine, which is a sign of fluid overload (hypervolemia). Choice A, serum sodium 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not indicate hypervolemia. Choice C, serum calcium 10 mg/dL, is not typically used to diagnose hypervolemia. Choice D, urine pH 6, is also not a specific indicator of hypervolemia.

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