a nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client that has conduct disorder the client threatened suicide to a teache
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client with conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to a teacher at school. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the assessment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Asking about alcohol intake is crucial in assessing the client's risk factors and behaviors, especially in the context of a suicide threat. Understanding alcohol consumption patterns can help the nurse evaluate potential substance abuse issues and their impact on the client's mental health. Choices A, B, and D are less pertinent to the immediate concern of assessing suicide risk and conduct disorder symptoms.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about managing blood pressure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement is C: 'Exercise for at least 30 minutes most days of the week.' Regular exercise is essential in managing blood pressure as it helps improve cardiovascular health. Choice A is incorrect as increasing red meat intake can be detrimental due to its high saturated fat content, which can negatively impact blood pressure. Choice B is not directly related to managing blood pressure unless the medication interacts negatively with alcohol. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 3 liters per day, is not a general recommendation for managing blood pressure unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's INR to determine the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. Warfarin is commonly used as an anticoagulant, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range ensures that the client is protected from both clotting and bleeding events. Monitoring serum calcium levels, platelet count, or WBC count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

4. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dependent edema is a common finding in clients with pneumonia due to fluid retention and decreased mobility. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia. Crackles in the lung bases (Choice B) are more commonly heard in conditions like heart failure or pulmonary edema. A productive cough (Choice D) can be seen in pneumonia but is not as specific as dependent edema.

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