ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants
- B. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
- C. Scant urine output
- D. Serosanguineous wound drainage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Serosanguineous wound drainage.' Serosanguineous drainage should be reported in postoperative clients as it may indicate complications such as infection or impaired wound healing. Options A, B, and C are expected findings in a postoperative client. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal function, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range, and scant urine output may be expected initially due to factors like anesthesia and fluid shifts postoperatively.
2. A client with lactose intolerance and has eliminated dairy products from his diet should increase consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium. Since the client has eliminated dairy products due to lactose intolerance, which are a common source of calcium, increasing spinach consumption can help compensate for the lost calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium and therefore not the best choice for this client.
3. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor INR
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a cleansing enema to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client on their left side.
- B. Insert the enema tubing 8 cm (3.1 in) into the client's rectum.
- C. Hold the container of the enema solution 61 cm (24 in) above the client.
- D. Advance the enema tubing 15 cm (6 in) into the client's rectum.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering a cleansing enema is to hold the container of the enema solution 61 cm (24 in) above the client. This height facilitates the proper flow of the solution into the client's rectum. Positioning the client on their left side helps facilitate the administration process, but it is not the specific action related to the enema solution. Inserting the enema tubing 8 cm (3.1 in) into the rectum is incorrect as it may not deliver the solution effectively. Advancing the enema tubing 15 cm (6 in) into the client's rectum is excessive and could cause trauma.
5. While caring for a client receiving an opioid analgesic for pain management, which assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor the client's urinary output.
- B. Check the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assess the client for constipation.
- D. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioids, the priority assessment is the respiratory rate since opioids can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring urinary output, blood pressure, and constipation are also important but not the priority in this scenario.
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