a nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indicati
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A client is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypocalcemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia, a condition that may result from inadvertent damage to the parathyroid glands during a thyroidectomy. These symptoms occur due to decreased levels of calcium in the bloodstream affecting nerve function. Choices A, C, and D are not typical manifestations of hypocalcemia. Constipation is more associated with hypercalcemia, increased thirst can be seen in diabetes or dehydration, and frequent urination is a symptom more commonly linked to conditions like diabetes or urinary tract issues.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin should avoid leafy green vegetables because they are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin by counteracting its anticoagulant effects. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements related to taking warfarin. Regular INR monitoring is necessary to ensure the medication is within the therapeutic range, using a soft toothbrush reduces the risk of bleeding gums, and taking the medication at the same time daily helps maintain consistent blood levels.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

5. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

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