a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin which of the following statements by the client indicates
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of warfarin. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients on warfarin therapy need to have their International Normalized Ratio (INR) checked regularly to monitor the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like clotting or bleeding. Option A is incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables can affect INR levels due to their vitamin K content. Option B is incorrect as grapefruit juice is not a significant concern with warfarin. Option D is important for medication adherence but does not specifically address the monitoring aspect required for warfarin therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify that which of the following client reports is an indication of hypocalcemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Numbness and tingling of the fingers.' Post-thyroidectomy, hypocalcemia is a concern due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands that regulate calcium levels. Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Frequent urination (Choice B) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or a urinary tract infection. Increased thirst (Choice D) is commonly seen in conditions such as diabetes insipidus or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, not specifically related to hypocalcemia.

5. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

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