a nurse is caring for a client who has experienced intimate partner violence what is the nurses priority
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced intimate partner violence. What is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Develop a safety plan with the client.' When caring for a client who has experienced intimate partner violence, the nurse's priority is to ensure the client's safety. Developing a safety plan is essential to address the immediate safety concerns and provide support to the client. Referring the client to a community support group, as in option B, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. While determining if the client has any injuries, as in option C, is important for assessing physical well-being, the priority is to address safety concerns first. Contacting the client's family about the incident, as in option D, is not appropriate without the client's consent and may further endanger the client.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.

4. A client who has a new prescription for lisinopril is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause increased urination, so fluid intake should not be limited.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Increased bilirubin levels are expected in clients with cirrhosis due to impaired liver function. Elevated bilirubin levels are commonly seen in cirrhosis as the liver's ability to process bilirubin is compromised. Decreased albumin levels and increased prothrombin time are also associated with cirrhosis, but the most specific finding related to liver dysfunction among the choices provided is increased bilirubin levels. Decreased serum glucose levels are not typically associated with cirrhosis.

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