Nursing Elites

1. When discussing group treatment and therapy with a client, which characteristic should the nurse include as being a characteristic of a therapeutic group?

• A. The group is organized in an autocratic structure.
• B. The group encourages members to focus on a particular issue
• C. The group must be led by a licensed psychiatrist.
• D. The group encourages clients to form dependent relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In therapeutic groups, the focus is often on addressing specific issues or topics. This approach allows group members to concentrate on their concerns, share experiences, and work towards common goals. Autocratic structures, mandatory leadership by a licensed psychiatrist, or fostering dependent relationships are not typical characteristics of therapeutic groups.

2. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

3. How can preserving skin integrity impact the circular chain of infection?

• A. Host
• B. Reservoir
• C. Mode of transmission
• D. Portal of entry

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Preserving skin integrity plays a key role in breaking the chain of infection by eliminating the portal of entry for pathogens. When the skin is intact, it acts as a natural barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body. By maintaining skin integrity through proper hygiene and wound care, the risk of infection is significantly reduced, disrupting the cycle of infection transmission.

4. What is another name for the knee-chest position?

• A. Genu-dorsal
• B. Genu-pectoral
• C. Lithotomy
• D. Sim’s

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The knee-chest position is correctly identified as the genu-pectoral position. In this position, a person rests on their knees and chest with the abdomen raised and the head turned to one side. This position is commonly used in medical examinations and procedures involving the rectal or pelvic areas, allowing for better visualization and access. Choice A, 'Genu-dorsal,' is incorrect as it does not refer to the knee-chest position. Choice C, 'Lithotomy,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is lying on their back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, commonly used during childbirth or certain surgeries. Choice D, 'Sim’s,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back.

5. A patient requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?

• A. Diabetes mellitus
• B. Shoulder presentation
• C. Postterm with oligohydramnios
• D. Chorioamnionitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postterm pregnancy with oligohydramnios is a contraindication for the use of oxytocin due to the increased risk of uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. Oxytocin can further stress the fetus in this scenario, potentially leading to adverse outcomes. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to recognize this contraindication to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby during labor.

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