ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?
- A. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen
- B. Urinary catheterization
- C. Nasogastric tube insertion
- D. Colostomy irrigation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Surgical asepsis, which involves maintaining a sterile field and preventing contamination in a surgical setting, is required for urinary catheterization as it involves entering a sterile body cavity. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen, nasogastric tube insertion, and colostomy irrigation do not always require surgical asepsis as they involve different levels of sterility and infection control measures.
2. What is the meaning of PRN?
- A. When advice
- B. Immediately
- C. When necessary
- D. Now
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct meaning of PRN is 'when necessary.' The abbreviation 'PRN' comes from the Latin term 'pro re nata,' which is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as needed, not at scheduled intervals. Choice A ('When advice') is incorrect as PRN does not refer to seeking advice. Choice B ('Immediately') is incorrect as PRN does not imply urgency. Choice D ('Now') is incorrect as PRN does not mean 'immediate' but rather 'as needed.' Therefore, the correct answer is C, 'When necessary.'
3. A client is receiving discharge instructions from a healthcare provider after being prescribed albuterol for COPD. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. Albuterol can increase my blood sugar levels.
- B. Albuterol can decrease my immune response.
- C. I can experience an increase in my heart rate while taking albuterol.
- D. I may develop mouth sores while taking albuterol.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator commonly used to treat conditions like COPD. One of its common side effects is an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) due to its action on beta-2 receptors in the body. This statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating comprehension of the discharge teaching provided by the healthcare provider.
4. A client is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
- C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
- D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prior to administering a blood transfusion, it is essential to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis of the blood cells. Using a smaller gauge IV catheter (e.g., 20 or 22 gauge) is recommended for blood transfusions to prevent hemolysis. Filterless IV tubing is contraindicated for blood transfusions as it does not have a filter to trap potential blood clots or debris. Warming blood is unnecessary and could lead to the development of bacteria in the blood product. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
5. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?
- A. Less than 30 ml/hour
- B. 64 ml in 2 hours
- C. 90 ml in 3 hours
- D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.
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