Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

2. For a rectal examination, the patient can be directed to assume which of the following positions?

• A. Genupectoral
• B. Sims
• C. Horizontal recumbent
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct position for a rectal examination is the Sims position, where the patient lies on their left side with the upper knee flexed. This position allows for easy access and visualization of the rectal area for examination.

3. What is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient who develops dyspnea and shortness of breath?

• A. Maintain the patient on strict bed rest at all times
• B. Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as needed
• C. Administer high-flow oxygen immediately
• D. Encourage the patient to engage in vigorous physical activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining the patient in an orthopneic position as needed is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient experiencing dyspnea and shortness of breath. This position helps to optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and alleviate breathing difficulties. It is a strategic intervention to enhance respiratory function in patients with respiratory distress. Choice A is incorrect because strict bed rest may not address the underlying respiratory issue effectively. Choice C is premature as administering high-flow oxygen should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Choice D is inappropriate as encouraging vigorous physical activity can exacerbate breathing problems in a patient experiencing dyspnea.

4. Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?

• A. Prothrombin and coagulation time
• B. Blood typing and cross-matching
• C. Bleeding and clotting time
• D. Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering a blood transfusion, it is crucial to perform blood typing and cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. This process helps prevent adverse reactions such as transfusion reactions, which can be life-threatening. Prothrombin and coagulation time, bleeding and clotting time, as well as CBC and electrolyte levels are important tests in other clinical contexts, but for blood transfusions, blood typing and cross-matching are essential to ensure patient safety.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Increased creatinine.
• B. Increased hemoglobin.
• C. Increased bicarbonate.
• D. Increased calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood, leading to an accumulation of creatinine. Creatinine levels are commonly elevated in individuals with impaired kidney function, making it a key indicator of kidney health. Therefore, an increased creatinine level would be an expected finding in a client with chronic kidney disease.

Similar Questions