Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

2. The client was asked to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is being tested?

• A. Optic
• B. Olfactory
• C. Oculomotor
• D. Trochlear

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Optic. The Snellen chart is used to test visual acuity, which assesses the function of the optic nerve responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Olfactory relates to the sense of smell, oculomotor controls eye movement, and trochlear controls certain eye muscles. Therefore, the only option related to vision testing in this context is the optic nerve.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client following a thoracentesis. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider NOT recognize as risks for complications?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Localized bloody drainage on the dressing
• C. Fever
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a thoracentesis, some expected complications include dyspnea, fever, and hypotension. Localized bloody drainage on the dressing is a common and expected finding post-thoracentesis due to the procedure's nature of puncturing the chest wall. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not consider this finding as a risk for complications.

4. Examples of patients suffering from impaired awareness include all of the following except:

• A. A semiconscious or overfatigued patient
• B. A disoriented or confused patient
• C. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home
• D. A patient demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with impaired awareness may exhibit symptoms such as being semiconscious, overfatigued, disoriented, confused, or demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home does not necessarily indicate impaired awareness, as this could be due to physical limitations or lack of support, rather than a cognitive deficit.

5. Before rigor mortis occurs, what is the nurse responsible for?

• A. Providing a complete bath and dressing change
• B. Placing one pillow under the body’s head and shoulders
• C. Removing the body’s clothing and wrapping the body in a shroud
• D. Allowing the body to relax normally

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before rigor mortis occurs, the nurse is responsible for placing a pillow under the body's head and shoulders. This action helps maintain proper positioning, prevent postmortem changes, and ensure a dignified appearance. Providing a complete bath and dressing change, removing clothing, or wrapping the body in a shroud are tasks typically performed after rigor mortis sets in or later in the postmortem care process. Allowing the body to relax normally does not address the immediate need for proper positioning before rigor mortis occurs.

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