ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
2. A client is receiving vecuronium for acute respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering with this medication?
- A. Fentanyl
- B. Furosemide
- C. Famotidine
- D. Dexamethasone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during mechanical ventilation. When administering vecuronium, it is common to also give an opioid analgesic, such as fentanyl, to manage pain and ensure the patient's comfort. Fentanyl is often used in combination with neuromuscular blocking agents to provide balanced anesthesia, making it the appropriate medication to anticipate administering in this scenario.
3. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
- B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
- C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
- D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.
4. Which pulse's absence may not be a significant finding when a patient is admitted to the hospital?
- A. Apical
- B. Radial
- C. Pedal
- D. Femoral
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The absence of the pedal pulse may not be significant if the patient has poor peripheral circulation or if the healthcare provider is focused on other pulse points. The pedal pulse is often weaker and may not always be palpable due to various factors, making its absence less concerning in certain situations. However, the absence of other pulses like radial or femoral pulses may indicate more critical conditions and require immediate attention.
5. What term refers to the manner of walking?
- A. Gait
- B. Range of motion
- C. Flexion and extension
- D. Hopping
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Gait specifically refers to the manner in which a person walks. It encompasses the pattern, rhythm, and style of walking, making it the most appropriate term in this context. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Range of motion refers to the extent of movement of a joint, flexion and extension relate to bending and straightening movements at a joint, and hopping is a specific type of movement that involves jumping on one foot.
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