Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

2. A client has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Place the client's left arm on a pillow while he is sitting.
• B. Provide total care in assisting with the client's ADLs.
• C. Encourage mobility and avoid bed rest.
• D. Facilitate feeding by placing food on the left side of the client's mouth when ready to eat.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and assists in maintaining proper positioning and alignment. This intervention is crucial to prevent complications associated with immobility. Providing total care in ADLs may hinder the client's independence and recovery. Encouraging mobility is essential in preventing complications of immobility. Facilitating feeding by placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth helps reduce the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia.

3. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

4. While teaching a newly hired nurse about varicella, a nurse in a pediatric clinic should include which of the following information?

• A. Children who have varicella are contagious until vesicles are crusted.
• B. Children who have varicella should receive the varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.
• C. Children who have varicella should be placed in airborne precautions.
• D. Children who have varicella are contagious 1-2 days before the rash appears.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Children with varicella (chickenpox) are contagious until all vesicles are crusted over. The contagious period starts 1-2 days before the rash appears and continues until all lesions are dried and crusted. It is important to educate healthcare providers about the contagious period to prevent the spread of the virus to susceptible individuals.

5. How can preserving skin integrity impact the circular chain of infection?

• A. Host
• B. Reservoir
• C. Mode of transmission
• D. Portal of entry

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Preserving skin integrity plays a key role in breaking the chain of infection by eliminating the portal of entry for pathogens. When the skin is intact, it acts as a natural barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body. By maintaining skin integrity through proper hygiene and wound care, the risk of infection is significantly reduced, disrupting the cycle of infection transmission.

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