Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

2. How can preserving skin integrity impact the circular chain of infection?

• A. Host
• B. Reservoir
• C. Mode of transmission
• D. Portal of entry

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Preserving skin integrity plays a key role in breaking the chain of infection by eliminating the portal of entry for pathogens. When the skin is intact, it acts as a natural barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body. By maintaining skin integrity through proper hygiene and wound care, the risk of infection is significantly reduced, disrupting the cycle of infection transmission.

3. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Lie on their left side.
• B. Use the incentive spirometer.
• C. Cough at regular intervals.
• D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.

4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

• A. Client who has dysphagia
• B. Client who has AIDS
• C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
• D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

5. When a chest tube is accidentally removed from a client, which of the following actions should the nurse NOT take first?

• A. Obtain a chest x-ray
• B. Apply sterile gauze to the insertion site
• C. Place tape around the insertion site
• D. Assess respiratory status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a chest tube is accidentally removed, the priority action for the nurse is to immediately seal the insertion site with a gloved hand, a sterile occlusive dressing, or petroleum gauze to prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing a pneumothorax. Applying sterile gauze to the insertion site is not the correct initial action. The first step is to prevent respiratory compromise by ensuring the site is sealed. Therefore, the nurse should not apply sterile gauze to the insertion site first.

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