ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
2. Which of the following is not a cause of tachycardia?
- A. Fever
- B. Exercise
- C. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
- D. Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tachycardia is an increased heart rate, and it can be caused by various factors such as fever, exercise, and sympathetic nervous system stimulation, all of which tend to increase heart rate. However, parasympathetic nervous system stimulation typically slows the heart rate, making it the exception among the choices provided. Thus, parasympathetic nervous system stimulation is not a cause of tachycardia.
3. What is a nurse's role in health promotion?
- A. Conducting health risk appraisals
- B. Educating clients to be effective health consumers
- C. Implementing worksite wellness programs
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nurse plays a crucial role in health promotion by educating clients to be effective health consumers. This involves empowering individuals to make informed decisions about their health, access appropriate healthcare services, and engage in healthy behaviors to prevent illness and promote well-being. The other choices are not entirely accurate in describing the primary role of a nurse in health promotion. While nurses may conduct health risk appraisals and implement worksite wellness programs as part of their responsibilities, their central focus is on educating and empowering individuals to take control of their health.
4. When providing mouth care to an unconscious client, what is the best position for the client?
- A. Fowler’s position
- B. Side-lying
- C. Supine
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best position for an unconscious client when providing mouth care is the side-lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth easily, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing the client in a side-lying position also promotes comfort and safety during the procedure. The other options are not ideal for mouth care in an unconscious client: Fowler’s position may increase the risk of aspiration, the supine position can lead to aspiration as well, and Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential adverse effects on blood circulation and increased intracranial pressure.
5. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Anorexia
- D. Dysphagia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness in a patient after starting furosemide therapy are indicative of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can manifest with muscle weakness, cramps, and fatigue due to alterations in neuromuscular function and decreased ATP production.
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