ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
2. Which of the following conditions may necessitate fluid restriction?
- A. Fever
- B. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
- C. Renal Failure
- D. Dehydration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Renal failure often necessitates fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter and excrete excess fluids, leading to fluid accumulation in the body. Restricting fluid intake helps manage this condition by preventing further fluid buildup and complications such as edema and electrolyte imbalances.
3. In the emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client involved in a motor vehicle crash. Findings include absent breath sounds in the left lower lobe with dyspnea, blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, heart rate 124/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.6 C (101.4 F), and SaO2 92% on room air. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain a chest X-ray.
- B. Prepare for chest tube insertion.
- C. Administer oxygen via high-flow mask.
- D. Initiate IV access.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of respiratory distress, including absent breath sounds, dyspnea, and a low SaO2 level. The priority action should be to improve oxygenation by administering oxygen via a high-flow mask. This intervention aims to increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs, helping to address the hypoxemia. Once oxygenation is optimized, further interventions, such as obtaining a chest X-ray, preparing for chest tube insertion, or initiating IV access, can be considered based on the client's condition and healthcare provider's orders.
4. For a rectal examination, the patient can be directed to assume which of the following positions?
- A. Genupectoral
- B. Sims
- C. Horizontal recumbent
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct position for a rectal examination is the Sims position, where the patient lies on their left side with the upper knee flexed. This position allows for easy access and visualization of the rectal area for examination.
5. A client has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should be made?
- A. Coffee with creamer
- B. Lettuce with sliced avocados
- C. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chronic pancreatitis requires a low-fat diet to reduce stress on the pancreas. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice is a suitable option as it is low in fat. Coffee with creamer and lettuce with sliced avocados are not recommended for individuals with chronic pancreatitis due to their fat content. Choosing options high in fat can exacerbate symptoms and increase the workload on the pancreas, worsening the condition.
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