Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

2. A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following supplies should NOT be in the client's room?

• A. Oxygen equipment
• B. Incentive spirometer
• C. Pulse oximeter
• D. Sterile dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a thoracentesis procedure, the focus is on draining fluid or air from the pleural space. An incentive spirometer, which helps improve lung function, is not a necessary supply for this specific procedure. Oxygen equipment, pulse oximeter for monitoring oxygen saturation levels, and sterile dressing for wound care may be needed during or after the procedure.

3. Which instrument is used for auscultation?

• A. Percussion hammer
• B. Audiometer
• C. Stethoscope
• D. Sphygmomanometer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation involves listening to internal sounds in the body, such as heart and lung sounds. The instrument used for auscultation is a stethoscope, which allows healthcare providers to listen to these sounds. The percussion hammer is used to elicit sounds on the body, the audiometer is used to measure hearing ability, and the sphygmomanometer is used to measure blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Stethoscope.'

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

5. If a healthcare provider administers an injection to a patient who refuses, they have committed:

• A. Assault and battery
• B. Negligence
• C. Malpractice
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a healthcare provider administers treatment, such as an injection, against a patient's refusal or will, it constitutes assault and battery. Assault refers to the intentional act that causes a person to fear that they will be touched without consent, while battery involves the actual harmful or offensive contact. In this scenario, administering the injection without the patient's consent is both an assault (causing fear of unwanted contact) and a battery (unwanted physical contact). Therefore, the correct answer is 'Assault and battery.' Negligence refers to a failure to exercise the appropriate level of care expected in a situation, while malpractice involves professional negligence or misconduct.

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