ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a central line?
- A. Flush the line daily
- B. Monitor for infection
- C. Change the dressing weekly
- D. Replace the central line every week
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a patient with a central line, monitoring for infection is crucial. This is because central lines can introduce bacteria into the bloodstream, leading to serious infections. While flushing the line daily and changing the dressing weekly are important aspects of central line care, monitoring for infection takes precedence. Infections can occur rapidly and have severe consequences, so early detection through vigilant monitoring is key. Replacing the central line every week is not a standard practice and should only be done when clinically indicated, such as in cases of infection or malfunction.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. History of polycystic ovary syndrome
- C. History of asthma
- D. History of kidney disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, history of kidney disease. Metformin should be used with caution in clients with kidney disease due to the risk of lactic acidosis, a serious complication. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for assessing the appropriateness of continuing metformin therapy. Choices A, B, and C do not contraindicate the use of metformin, so they are not the priority for reporting.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?
- A. Calcium carbonate
- B. Furosemide
- C. Epoetin alfa
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?
- A. Positive Trousseau's sign.
- B. Hyperactive reflexes.
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
- D. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hyperthermia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In acute alcohol withdrawal, tachycardia is a common finding due to increased sympathetic activity. Bradycardia (Choice A) is less likely in this condition since the sympathetic nervous system is typically overactive. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical finding in acute alcohol withdrawal. Hypotension (Choice D) is less common compared to tachycardia in this situation.
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