ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a central line?
- A. Flush the line daily
- B. Monitor for infection
- C. Change the dressing weekly
- D. Replace the central line every week
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a patient with a central line, monitoring for infection is crucial. This is because central lines can introduce bacteria into the bloodstream, leading to serious infections. While flushing the line daily and changing the dressing weekly are important aspects of central line care, monitoring for infection takes precedence. Infections can occur rapidly and have severe consequences, so early detection through vigilant monitoring is key. Replacing the central line every week is not a standard practice and should only be done when clinically indicated, such as in cases of infection or malfunction.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Elevate the client's legs while in bed.
- B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
- C. Maintain bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively.
- D. Ambulate the client on the first postoperative day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ambulating the client on the first postoperative day is crucial to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and aid in the recovery process. Elevating the legs while in bed can help with circulation but is not as effective in preventing complications related to immobility post-surgery. Repositioning every 2 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address postoperative care. Maintaining bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively can increase the risk of complications associated with immobility, making early ambulation a more appropriate intervention.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client's urine output decreases.
- B. The client's blood pressure increases.
- C. The client's heart rate increases.
- D. The client's urine specific gravity decreases.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The client's urine output decreases.' Desmopressin is used to treat diabetes insipidus by reducing excessive urine output. Therefore, a decrease in urine output indicates that the medication is effectively controlling the symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because desmopressin primarily affects urine output, not blood pressure, heart rate, or urine specific gravity.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Ataxia.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's admission laboratory results. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?
- A. Sodium 138
- B. Creatinine 1.8
- C. Hemoglobin 15
- D. Potassium 4.2
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated creatinine level, such as 1.8, suggests potential kidney dysfunction, requiring further assessment. Sodium level within normal limits (135-145 mEq/L), hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL, and potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L are all within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns. Therefore, they do not require further evaluation at this time.
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