a nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Tremors can indicate lithium toxicity, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Tremors are a significant sign of lithium toxicity and can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Increased thirst, weight gain, and diarrhea are common side effects of lithium but are not typically indicative of toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting tremors as it requires immediate attention.

2. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

4. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a cleansing enema to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering a cleansing enema is to hold the container of the enema solution 61 cm (24 in) above the client. This height facilitates the proper flow of the solution into the client's rectum. Positioning the client on their left side helps facilitate the administration process, but it is not the specific action related to the enema solution. Inserting the enema tubing 8 cm (3.1 in) into the rectum is incorrect as it may not deliver the solution effectively. Advancing the enema tubing 15 cm (6 in) into the client's rectum is excessive and could cause trauma.

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