ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Tremors
- B. Increased thirst
- C. Weight gain
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Tremors can indicate lithium toxicity, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Tremors are a significant sign of lithium toxicity and can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Increased thirst, weight gain, and diarrhea are common side effects of lithium but are not typically indicative of toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting tremors as it requires immediate attention.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following an abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Assess the client's pain level.
- B. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
- C. Measure the client's blood pressure.
- D. Check the client's bowel sounds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. This assessment is crucial in the postoperative period to detect any respiratory complications such as hypoxia or respiratory distress. Assessing pain level (Choice A) is important but may not be the top priority as respiratory status takes precedence. Measuring blood pressure (Choice C) is also important but not as critical immediately postoperatively as monitoring respiratory function. Checking bowel sounds (Choice D) is relevant for assessing gastrointestinal function but is typically not the top priority in the immediate postoperative phase.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
- B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?
- A. Fetal hypoxia
- B. Head compression
- C. Placenta previa
- D. Umbilical cord prolapse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario of early decelerations noted during labor with electronic fetal monitoring, the nurse should expect head compression. Early decelerations are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions and are not indicative of fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect as early decelerations are not associated with fetal oxygen deprivation. Choices C and D, placenta previa and umbilical cord prolapse, are unrelated to the scenario described and do not cause early decelerations.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Dilated pupils.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.
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