Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Tremors
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Weight gain
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Tremors can indicate lithium toxicity, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Tremors are a significant sign of lithium toxicity and can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Increased thirst, weight gain, and diarrhea are common side effects of lithium but are not typically indicative of toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting tremors as it requires immediate attention.

2. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about clients designating a health care proxy. Which of the following information should the charge nurse include?

• A. The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the client's ability to do so
• B. The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises
• C. The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia
• D. The proxy should manage legal issues for the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the health care proxy can make treatment decisions for the client if the client is under anesthesia. This aligns with the concept of durable power of attorney for health care, where the proxy is authorized to make health care decisions when the client is unable to do so. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the proxy should make health care decisions only when the client is unable to do so. Choice B is incorrect as financial decisions are not typically within the scope of a health care proxy. Choice D is incorrect as managing legal issues is not the primary role of a health care proxy.

3. A client is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
• D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. While a heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concern related to morphine administration.

4. A patient is being cared for by a nurse who has a history of angina and is experiencing chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with a history of angina experiencing chest pain, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. This helps in assessing for myocardial infarction, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the healthcare provider can be important interventions but obtaining the ECG comes first to determine the presence of myocardial infarction and guide further management.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

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