Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Tremors
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Weight gain
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Tremors can indicate lithium toxicity, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Tremors are a significant sign of lithium toxicity and can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Increased thirst, weight gain, and diarrhea are common side effects of lithium but are not typically indicative of toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting tremors as it requires immediate attention.

2. Which medication is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation?

• A. Warfarin
• B. Digoxin
• C. Aspirin
• D. Lisinopril

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage atrial fibrillation by controlling heart rate. While Warfarin is used to prevent blood clots, it is not primarily used for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation. Aspirin is not the first-line treatment for atrial fibrillation and is generally not recommended for rhythm control. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, but it is not typically prescribed as the primary medication for managing atrial fibrillation.

3. While caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• B. Administer a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours is essential when managing a client on TPN to monitor for hyperglycemia, a common complication. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not a priority in this scenario. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice B) is not indicated as it is unrelated to managing TPN. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water (Choice D) is necessary, but it should be done with 0.9% sodium chloride, not water.

4. A nurse is assessing a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Which symptom should the nurse expect?

• A. Periorbital edema.
• B. Decreased frequency of urination.
• C. Enuresis.
• D. Diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enuresis is a common symptom of urinary tract infections in school-age children. It is often a presenting symptom due to irritation of the bladder. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is more indicative of conditions like nephrotic syndrome or renal disorders. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is not typically associated with urinary tract infections. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of urinary tract infections but may occur due to other reasons like gastrointestinal infections.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Yellow-tinged vision.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Hypertension.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity due to its effect on the eyes. It can cause a yellow or green visual halo around objects. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypertension are not typical signs of digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia may be a sign of digoxin's therapeutic effect in heart failure, while constipation and hypertension are not commonly associated with digoxin toxicity.

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