Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Report any muscle pain to your healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.' Clients taking metformin should avoid alcohol as it increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is usually taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is typically taken with meals, not at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of metformin.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements
• B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor
• C. Dehydration can increase gastroesophageal reflux
• D. Dehydration is caused by a decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make is that dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor. Dehydration reduces amniotic fluid and uterine blood flow, potentially leading to preterm contractions. Choice A is incorrect because dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with adequate fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration does not directly increase gastroesophageal reflux. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by insufficient fluid intake or excessive fluid loss.

3. A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Fever
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine.
• B. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing.
• C. Perform debridement as needed.
• D. Keep the wound open to air.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L
• B. Blood pressure 136/84 mm Hg
• C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.

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