ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
- B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
- C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
- D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.
2. A client with a pulmonary embolism is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
- B. Place the client in a prone position.
- C. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering anticoagulants as prescribed is a crucial intervention for clients with pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may dislodge the clot and lead to worsening symptoms. Placing the client in a prone position can compromise respiratory function. Initiating seizure precautions is not directly related to the management of pulmonary embolism.
3. What is the best method to assess for fluid overload in patients with heart failure?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for jugular vein distention
- C. Check for pitting edema
- D. Check for fluid retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate method to assess fluid overload in patients with heart failure. Changes in weight can indicate fluid retention before visible signs like jugular vein distention or pitting edema appear. Checking for jugular vein distention (choice B) is helpful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring. Pitting edema (choice C) and fluid retention (choice D) are signs of fluid overload, but daily weight monitoring is a more proactive approach to detect changes early.
4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should have my vision checked regularly while taking this medication.
- B. This medication can cause my urine to turn reddish-orange.
- C. I need to wear sunscreen and protective clothing while taking this medication.
- D. I will discontinue this medication if I experience nausea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. Choice A is not related to rifampin; vision changes are not a common side effect of the medication. Choice C is more relevant to medications that cause photosensitivity reactions, not specifically rifampin. Choice D is incorrect because nausea is a common side effect of rifampin, but it does not warrant immediate discontinuation of the medication.
5. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?
- A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
- B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.
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