Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
• B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
• C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
• D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should take this medication in the morning to reduce urination during the day.
• B. You may experience ringing in your ears as a side effect.
• C. This medication may cause your potassium level to decrease.
• D. You should consume foods high in potassium while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• B. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F).
• C. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern in patients receiving loop diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia (Choice C). Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a common concern with loop diuretic therapy and necessitates regular monitoring. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with loop diuretics but with conditions like renal failure. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is more common with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical concern with loop diuretic use.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify which finding as an indication of effective treatment?

• A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all lung fields.
• B. The client reports feeling less anxious.
• C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally.
• D. ABG results include a pH of 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client reporting feeling less anxious is a positive indication of effective treatment for a pulmonary embolism. This suggests that the client's condition is improving psychologically. Option A is incorrect because increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate unresolved issues related to the embolism. Option C is incorrect as diminished breath sounds bilaterally suggest a complication or worsening of the condition. Option D is incorrect as ABG results within normal range do not necessarily indicate effective treatment for a pulmonary embolism, as other complications may still be present.

Similar Questions