ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
- B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
- C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
- D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.
2. What is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer bronchodilators
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Administer corticosteroids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. In respiratory distress, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen helps increase the oxygen levels in the blood, supporting respiratory function. While bronchodilators may be used in specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD, they are not the primary intervention for respiratory distress. IV fluids are not indicated as the initial treatment for respiratory distress unless there is an underlying cause such as dehydration. Corticosteroids may be used in certain respiratory conditions to reduce inflammation, but they are not the first-line intervention for acute respiratory distress.
3. A client with asthma is being taught how to use a peak flow meter by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Blow as hard as possible into the mouthpiece.
- B. Exhale quickly and forcefully after taking a deep breath.
- C. Inhale as deeply as possible and then blow into the mouthpiece.
- D. Take a deep breath and hold it for 5 seconds before exhaling.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should exhale quickly and forcefully into the peak flow meter after taking a deep breath to measure peak expiratory flow. Choice A is incorrect as blowing as hard as possible may not provide an accurate reading. Choice C is incorrect because inhaling deeply before blowing can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as holding the breath before exhaling is not part of using a peak flow meter.
4. Which medication is used to treat opioid overdose?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Epinephrine
- C. Lidocaine
- D. Atropine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the standard medication for reversing opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors. Choice B, Epinephrine, is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and cardiac arrest, not opioid overdose. Choice C, Lidocaine, is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes and managing certain types of arrhythmias, not for opioid overdose. Choice D, Atropine, is used to treat bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and nerve agent toxicity, not opioid overdose.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.
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