ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
- B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
- C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
- D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.
2. A nurse is preparing to perform a bladder scan for a client who has overflow incontinence. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a supine position.
- B. Obtain a prescription for insertion of an indwelling catheter.
- C. Cleanse the client's abdomen with an antiseptic solution.
- D. Prepare the client for urinary catheterization.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for urinary catheterization. Overflow incontinence may indicate bladder distention, where a bladder scan helps assess the need for catheterization. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to the procedure. Obtaining a prescription for an indwelling catheter (Choice B) is not necessary before performing a bladder scan. Cleansing the client's abdomen with an antiseptic solution (Choice C) is not specific to preparing for a bladder scan in this situation.
3. A nurse is providing care to a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing the client with a stool softener helps prevent constipation, reduces the need for straining during bowel movements, and ultimately decreases the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect as flossing daily does not directly address the issue of bleeding risk associated with thrombocytopenia. Choice B is incorrect as removing fresh flowers from the client's room is more related to the risk of infection rather than bleeding in thrombocytopenia. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding serving raw vegetables does not directly impact the risk of bleeding in clients with thrombocytopenia.
4. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?
- A. Below-the-knee amputation.
- B. Fractured tibia.
- C. 95% full-thickness body burn.
- D. 10 cm laceration to the forearm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.
5. A client who is 14 weeks of gestation reports swelling of the face. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Administer an analgesic.
- B. Report this finding to the provider immediately.
- C. Administer an antiemetic.
- D. Monitor the client's vital signs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to report this finding to the provider immediately. Swelling of the face in pregnancy can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the client and the fetus. Administering an analgesic (choice A) is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the underlying cause of the swelling. Administering an antiemetic (choice C) is used to treat nausea and vomiting, which are not the primary concerns associated with facial swelling in this scenario. Monitoring the client's vital signs (choice D) is important but should be done after reporting the finding to the provider to guide further assessment and management.
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