a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease which of the following statements by the client indicates an
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.

2. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer blood to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor first before administering blood. This is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Checking the client's identification bracelet (Choice A) is important but should come after verifying blood type. Obtaining vital signs (Choice B) and initiating the transfusion slowly (Choice C) are important steps but verifying blood type is the priority to ensure safe blood administration.

4. While caring for a client with an arterial line, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining arterial blood gases is a crucial nursing action when caring for a client with an arterial line. This procedure helps assess the client's oxygenation status and acid-base balance accurately. Leveling the transducer with the client's phlebotomy site (A) is important for accurate pressure measurements, but it is not the primary action in this scenario. Flushing the arterial line every 8 hours (B) is a routine maintenance procedure and not the immediate priority. Keeping the client's hand elevated above the heart level (D) is a good practice to prevent swelling, but it is not directly related to the arterial line care in this case.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney dysfunction, necessitating hemodialysis. The other options, BUN of 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus of 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not serve as indications for hemodialysis.

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