a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease which of the following statements by the client indicates an
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.

2. A healthcare provider is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the healthcare provider to delegate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Transporting a client to x-ray.' This task is appropriate for delegation to assistive personnel as it involves transferring the client safely from one location to another, which does not require the specialized skills of a healthcare provider. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank (Choice A) involves making clinical decisions that should be done by a licensed healthcare provider. Collecting a urine sample (Choice B) and measuring the client's pain level (Choice C) require critical thinking and assessment skills that are typically within the scope of practice of licensed healthcare providers, not assistive personnel.

3. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

4. A client has a new ileostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Changing the entire pouching system weekly is essential for maintaining skin integrity and preventing infection. Option A is incorrect as applying a skin barrier should be done during the pouch change, not separately. Option B is incorrect as ileostomy pouches should be emptied when they are one-third to one-half full to prevent leakage. Option D is incorrect because cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol can be too harsh and may cause skin irritation.

5. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who reports cocaine use 1hr ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated temperature. Cocaine is a stimulant drug that can lead to an increase in body temperature. Hypotension (choice A) is less likely as cocaine tends to increase blood pressure. Memory loss (choice B) and slurred speech (choice C) are not typically immediate effects of recent cocaine use.

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