ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. What is the initial step when a patient is experiencing chest pain?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Provide pain relief
- D. Provide nitroglycerin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial step in managing chest pain. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels in the blood, which is crucial in cases of chest pain. Repositioning the patient, providing pain relief, or administering nitroglycerin may be necessary steps depending on the underlying cause, but administering oxygen takes precedence as it addresses the primary concern of oxygen supply to the body during chest pain.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Dry mouth.
- B. Photosensitivity.
- C. Headache.
- D. Urinary retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.
3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure daily while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent nocturia.
- D. Avoid taking this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should report a sore throat to my provider.
- B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
- C. This medication increases my risk for infection.
- D. This medication decreases my appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has cholecystitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Bananas.
- B. Oatmeal.
- C. Brown rice.
- D. Whole milk.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole milk. Clients with cholecystitis should avoid high-fat foods, and whole milk contains high levels of fat. Bananas, oatmeal, and brown rice are generally considered safe for clients with cholecystitis as they are low in fat and easily digestible. Bananas are a good source of potassium, oatmeal is high in fiber, and brown rice provides complex carbohydrates. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to avoid whole milk but can recommend the other choices as part of a balanced diet for cholecystitis.
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