a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation which of the following laboratory va
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client receiving warfarin, indicating a potential risk of blood clots. This value should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the warfarin dosage. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy in this scenario, making them less urgent to report.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

3. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a Z-track technique to administer the injection.' When administering IM injections, using a Z-track technique helps prevent medication from leaking into subcutaneous tissues. This technique involves pulling the skin laterally, injecting the medication deeply into the muscle, and then releasing the skin. Choice A is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administering the medication can lead to increased blood flow and potential leakage of the medication. Choice B is incorrect as the needle should typically be inserted at a 90° angle for IM injections to ensure proper delivery into the muscle. Choice D is incorrect as aspirating for blood before injecting the medication is not routinely recommended for IM injections.

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